1. With reference to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements.
1) The Act provides use rights to minor and major forest produce.
2) Only persons belonging to Scheduled Tribes are eligible for recognition under the act.
3) A forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable as well as transferable.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements.
1) The Act provides use rights to minor and major forest produce.
2) Only persons belonging to Scheduled Tribes are eligible for recognition under the act.
3) A forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable as well as transferable.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
24%
A. Only one
38%
B. Only two
15%
C. All three
23%
D. None
Answer: D
Explanation
About the Act
● The Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006 is a people-centric law for forests, which recognises the rights of forest- dwelling
communities to use and manage forest resources.
● With more than 150 million forest dwellers, the scope of FRA is immense to protect their
livelihoods, and engage them in sustainable forest management.
Rights under FRA
● Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to
a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the
concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
● Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to
pastoralist routes, etc. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced
displacement; and basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
● Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife.
Objective of the Act
● To undo the historical injustice occurred to the forest dwelling communities;
● To ensure land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest dwelling Scheduled
Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers;
● To strengthen the conservation regime of the forests by including the responsibilities
and authority of Forest Rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and
maintenance of ecological balance.
Eligibility
● To qualify as Other Traditional Forest Dweller (OTFD) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, two conditions need to be fulfilled:
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land for three generations (75 years) prior to
13-12-2005, and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs. Hence, statement
2 is incorrect. Non-ST are eligible for recognition as OTFD, provided these two
conditions are fulfilled.
● To qualify as a Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribe (FDST) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, three conditions must be satisfied by the applicant/s, who could be
“members or community”:
○ Must be a Scheduled Tribe in the area where the right is claimed; and
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land prior to 13-12-2005; and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs.
● The FRA provides that a forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not
alienable or transferable, and shall be registered jointly in the name of both the spouses in
case of married persons and in the name of the single head in the case of a household
headed by a single person. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Process of recognition of rights
● The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution
recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
● This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka)
and subsequently at the district level.
● The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and
Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level.
These committees also hear appeals.
● The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Rules, 2008, notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs for implementing the provisions of the
Act, provide for constitution of Forest Rights Committee by the Gram Sabha for assisting
it in its functions to –
○ prepare a list of claimants on forest rights;
○ verify claims as provided in the rules;
○ present their findings on the nature and extent of the claim before the Gram Sabha
for its consideration;
○ prepare the claims on behalf of Gram Sabha for community forest rights in the
prescribed form.
Explanation
About the Act
● The Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006 is a people-centric law for forests, which recognises the rights of forest- dwelling
communities to use and manage forest resources.
● With more than 150 million forest dwellers, the scope of FRA is immense to protect their
livelihoods, and engage them in sustainable forest management.
Rights under FRA
● Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to
a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the
concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
● Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to
pastoralist routes, etc. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced
displacement; and basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
● Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife.
Objective of the Act
● To undo the historical injustice occurred to the forest dwelling communities;
● To ensure land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest dwelling Scheduled
Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers;
● To strengthen the conservation regime of the forests by including the responsibilities
and authority of Forest Rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and
maintenance of ecological balance.
Eligibility
● To qualify as Other Traditional Forest Dweller (OTFD) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, two conditions need to be fulfilled:
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land for three generations (75 years) prior to
13-12-2005, and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs. Hence, statement
2 is incorrect. Non-ST are eligible for recognition as OTFD, provided these two
conditions are fulfilled.
● To qualify as a Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribe (FDST) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, three conditions must be satisfied by the applicant/s, who could be
“members or community”:
○ Must be a Scheduled Tribe in the area where the right is claimed; and
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land prior to 13-12-2005; and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs.
● The FRA provides that a forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not
alienable or transferable, and shall be registered jointly in the name of both the spouses in
case of married persons and in the name of the single head in the case of a household
headed by a single person. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Process of recognition of rights
● The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution
recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
● This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka)
and subsequently at the district level.
● The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and
Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level.
These committees also hear appeals.
● The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Rules, 2008, notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs for implementing the provisions of the
Act, provide for constitution of Forest Rights Committee by the Gram Sabha for assisting
it in its functions to –
○ prepare a list of claimants on forest rights;
○ verify claims as provided in the rules;
○ present their findings on the nature and extent of the claim before the Gram Sabha
for its consideration;
○ prepare the claims on behalf of Gram Sabha for community forest rights in the
prescribed form.
choose the correct option
Anonymous Quiz
49%
A. Network of space launch capabilities across the NATO alliance
11%
B. Network of nuclear triad across the NATO alliance
25%
C. Joint Artificial Intelligence Regulating body across the EU countries
15%
D. War Room that deals with the problem of space debris
Answer: A
Starlift Programme
● The UK has announced support to NATO’s efforts to enhance its space capabilities,
including the possibility of using UK launch vehicles and spaceports.
● This initiative, known as the STARLIFT programme, aims to develop a network of space
launch capabilities across the alliance. Hence, answer is option A.
About NATO
● Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of
31 countries from North America and Europe.
● Established in the Cold War as a bulwark against Soviet aggression, NATO’s fundamental
goal is to safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military
means.
● Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an attack
against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defence.
○ Article 5 has been invoked only once in NATO history. It happened after the
September 11 attacks on the United States in 2001, which led the alliance into
Afghanistan.
● A “NATO decision” is the expression of the collective will of all 31 member countries since
all decisions are taken by consensus.
● NATO is funded by Allies both directly and indirectly. Direct contributions are made to
NATO budgets and programmes on an agreed cost-share formula, based on Gross National
Income. Indirect funding is where allies commit capabilities or troops to a military
operation.
● At present, NATO has 32 members. In 1949, there were 12 founding members of the
Alliance: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands,
Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States.
● The other member countries are: Greece and Turkey (1952), Germany (1955), Spain
(1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
Romania, Slovakia and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017)
North Macedonia (2020), Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
● NATOs Headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
Starlift Programme
● The UK has announced support to NATO’s efforts to enhance its space capabilities,
including the possibility of using UK launch vehicles and spaceports.
● This initiative, known as the STARLIFT programme, aims to develop a network of space
launch capabilities across the alliance. Hence, answer is option A.
About NATO
● Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of
31 countries from North America and Europe.
● Established in the Cold War as a bulwark against Soviet aggression, NATO’s fundamental
goal is to safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military
means.
● Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an attack
against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defence.
○ Article 5 has been invoked only once in NATO history. It happened after the
September 11 attacks on the United States in 2001, which led the alliance into
Afghanistan.
● A “NATO decision” is the expression of the collective will of all 31 member countries since
all decisions are taken by consensus.
● NATO is funded by Allies both directly and indirectly. Direct contributions are made to
NATO budgets and programmes on an agreed cost-share formula, based on Gross National
Income. Indirect funding is where allies commit capabilities or troops to a military
operation.
● At present, NATO has 32 members. In 1949, there were 12 founding members of the
Alliance: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands,
Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States.
● The other member countries are: Greece and Turkey (1952), Germany (1955), Spain
(1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
Romania, Slovakia and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017)
North Macedonia (2020), Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
● NATOs Headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
3. With reference to Small Finance Banks (SFBs), consider the following statements.
1) SFBs primarily lends to unserved and underserved sections.
2) SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI.
1) SFBs primarily lends to unserved and underserved sections.
2) SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
17%
A. 1 only
11%
B. 2 only
70%
C. Both 1 and 2
3%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
About SFBs
● Small Finance Banks (SFBs) primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of
deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections including small business
units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector
entities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● These banks basically work as savings vehicles as well, as they are engaged in offering
credit facilities through their advanced technology & low-cost operations.
● They are eligible to provide credit card and debit card facilities and associational services.
Regulations
● SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing
commercial banks including requirement of maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● SFBs are required to open at least 25% of its branches in unbanked rural centres.
● SFBs will be required to extend 75 per cent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the
sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
● At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of upto
Rs. 25 lakh.
Why in News?
● Unity Small Finance Bank has announced its entry into Tamil Nadu with six branches.
Explanation
About SFBs
● Small Finance Banks (SFBs) primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of
deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections including small business
units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector
entities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● These banks basically work as savings vehicles as well, as they are engaged in offering
credit facilities through their advanced technology & low-cost operations.
● They are eligible to provide credit card and debit card facilities and associational services.
Regulations
● SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing
commercial banks including requirement of maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● SFBs are required to open at least 25% of its branches in unbanked rural centres.
● SFBs will be required to extend 75 per cent of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the
sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
● At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of upto
Rs. 25 lakh.
Why in News?
● Unity Small Finance Bank has announced its entry into Tamil Nadu with six branches.
4. With reference to the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI),
consider the following statements.
1) IRDAI is an executive body.
2) IRDAI aims to promote competition in the insurance market.
3) Re-Insurance Companies fall under the regulatory authority of IRDAI.
consider the following statements.
1) IRDAI is an executive body.
2) IRDAI aims to promote competition in the insurance market.
3) Re-Insurance Companies fall under the regulatory authority of IRDAI.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. Only one
67%
B. Only two
22%
C. All three
2%
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation
About IRDAI
● Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body set
up for protecting the interests of the policyholders and regulating, promoting and ensuring
orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The powers and functions of the Authority are laid down in the IRDAI Act, 1999 and
Insurance Act, 1938.
● The key objectives of the IRDAI include promotion of competition so as to enhance
customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and fair premiums, while
ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Entities regulated by IRDAI:
○ Life Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies
○ General Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies. Among
them, there are some standalone Health Insurance Companies which offer health
Insurance policies.
○ Re-Insurance Companies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
○ Agency Channel
○ Intermediaries which include the following:
■ Corporate Agents
■ Brokers
■ Third Party Administrators
■ Surveyors and Loss Assessors.
Why in News?
● IRDAI has directed all insurance companies to scrutinize their IT systems for vulnerabilities.
● This advisory follows reports of data breaches involving two major general insurance
companies, Star Health and Allied Insurance, and Tata AIG General Insurance.
Explanation
About IRDAI
● Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body set
up for protecting the interests of the policyholders and regulating, promoting and ensuring
orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● The powers and functions of the Authority are laid down in the IRDAI Act, 1999 and
Insurance Act, 1938.
● The key objectives of the IRDAI include promotion of competition so as to enhance
customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and fair premiums, while
ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Entities regulated by IRDAI:
○ Life Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies
○ General Insurance Companies - Both public and private sector Companies. Among
them, there are some standalone Health Insurance Companies which offer health
Insurance policies.
○ Re-Insurance Companies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
○ Agency Channel
○ Intermediaries which include the following:
■ Corporate Agents
■ Brokers
■ Third Party Administrators
■ Surveyors and Loss Assessors.
Why in News?
● IRDAI has directed all insurance companies to scrutinize their IT systems for vulnerabilities.
● This advisory follows reports of data breaches involving two major general insurance
companies, Star Health and Allied Insurance, and Tata AIG General Insurance.
5.Which of the following countries are members of BRICS?
1) Iran
2) Iraq
3) Argentina
4) Algeria
5) Ethipoia
1) Iran
2) Iraq
3) Argentina
4) Algeria
5) Ethipoia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Anonymous Quiz
10%
A. 1 and 2
12%
B. 4 and 5
25%
C. 1, 2 and 5
53%
D. 1, 3 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation
BRICS Expansion
● In a landmark decision, members of the BRICS declared expansion of the grouping in
2023 by welcoming six new countries into the fold.
● During the 15th BRICS summit in Johannesburg, the grouping had invited six new
members — Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from West Asia;
Egypt and Ethiopia from Africa, and Argentina from Latin America Argentina, Egypt,
Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates — to join as full members.
Hence, answer is option D.
Explanation
BRICS Expansion
● In a landmark decision, members of the BRICS declared expansion of the grouping in
2023 by welcoming six new countries into the fold.
● During the 15th BRICS summit in Johannesburg, the grouping had invited six new
members — Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from West Asia;
Egypt and Ethiopia from Africa, and Argentina from Latin America Argentina, Egypt,
Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates — to join as full members.
Hence, answer is option D.
Explore the complexities of the Tamil fisherfolk's struggle in Sri Lankan waters with insights from our History Faculty, Mr. Santhanam KLSM, in his latest article for Frontline - The Hindu (Published: 25th October 2024). Titled 'Tamil fisherfolk in Sri Lankan waters: A classic ‘wicked problem’,' the piece unpacks the intricate challenges and historical background. Dive into the full article for a thought-provoking read.
https://frontline.thehindu.com/world-affairs/tamil-fishermen-sri-lanka-navy-india-sri-lanka-relations-katchatheevu-palk-bay-trawling/article68796199.ece
https://frontline.thehindu.com/world-affairs/tamil-fishermen-sri-lanka-navy-india-sri-lanka-relations-katchatheevu-palk-bay-trawling/article68796199.ece
Mr. Ashok Vardhan Shetty, an esteemed former IAS officer, serves as a faculty member at Officers IAS Academy, where he shares his extensive expertise in Ethics and Governance with UPSC aspirants. His insightful perspectives are highly valued by his students and reach a broader audience through his regularly published articles in DT NEXT.
https://www.dtnext.in/news/chennai/how-converting-madras-race-course-land-can-help-chennai-be-a-biophilic-city-808969
https://www.dtnext.in/news/chennai/how-converting-madras-race-course-land-can-help-chennai-be-a-biophilic-city-808969
1. With reference to Registration and Recognition of Political Parties, consider the following statements.
1) Political parties are registered under Representation of Peoples Act, 1951.
2) The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, lays down the criteria for declaring any registered political party as a national party or a state party.
3) The Election Commission has the power to deregister parties.
1) Political parties are registered under Representation of Peoples Act, 1951.
2) The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, lays down the criteria for declaring any registered political party as a national party or a state party.
3) The Election Commission has the power to deregister parties.