3. With reference to the UDAN Scheme, consider the following statements.
1) The objective of the scheme is to provide connectivity to un-served and under-served
airports of the country..
2) UDAN aims to achieve last mile connectivity through helicopters.
1) The objective of the scheme is to provide connectivity to un-served and under-served
airports of the country..
2) UDAN aims to achieve last mile connectivity through helicopters.
Answer: B
About Exercise Malabar
● Exercise Malabar, which began in 1992 as a bilateral naval drill between India and the
U.S., has evolved into a key multilateral event aimed at enhancing interoperability,
fostering mutual understanding, and addressing shared maritime challenges in the Indian
Ocean and Indo-Pacific region.
● The Quad countries carried out 'Exercise Malabar' off the coast of Visakhapatnam. Hence,
answer is option B.
Quad grouping
● The grouping of four democracies – India, Australia, US and Japan – known as the
quadrilateral security dialogue or quad, was first mooted by former Japanese Prime
Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007. Quad was revived in 2017.
● The QUAD partners share a commitment towards a free, open, prosperous and
inclusive Indo-Pacific region based on shared values and principles and respect for
international law.
● There is a focus on practical cooperation in the areas of connectivity and infrastructure
development, and counter-terrorism, cyber security, maritime security, humanitarian and
disaster relief, with the objective of promoting peace, security, stability and prosperity in an
increasingly inter-connected Indo-Pacific region.
● With growing concerns in all four quad countries about Chinese foreign policy and
regional influence, the group has found renewed relevance.
Why in News?
● The Harbour Phase was held in Visakhapatnam, followed by the Sea Phase in the Bay of
Bengal.
About Exercise Malabar
● Exercise Malabar, which began in 1992 as a bilateral naval drill between India and the
U.S., has evolved into a key multilateral event aimed at enhancing interoperability,
fostering mutual understanding, and addressing shared maritime challenges in the Indian
Ocean and Indo-Pacific region.
● The Quad countries carried out 'Exercise Malabar' off the coast of Visakhapatnam. Hence,
answer is option B.
Quad grouping
● The grouping of four democracies – India, Australia, US and Japan – known as the
quadrilateral security dialogue or quad, was first mooted by former Japanese Prime
Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007. Quad was revived in 2017.
● The QUAD partners share a commitment towards a free, open, prosperous and
inclusive Indo-Pacific region based on shared values and principles and respect for
international law.
● There is a focus on practical cooperation in the areas of connectivity and infrastructure
development, and counter-terrorism, cyber security, maritime security, humanitarian and
disaster relief, with the objective of promoting peace, security, stability and prosperity in an
increasingly inter-connected Indo-Pacific region.
● With growing concerns in all four quad countries about Chinese foreign policy and
regional influence, the group has found renewed relevance.
Why in News?
● The Harbour Phase was held in Visakhapatnam, followed by the Sea Phase in the Bay of
Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
36%
A. 1 only
18%
B. 2 only
44%
C. Both 1 and 2
3%
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
● In 2017, the Ministry of Civil Aviation launched the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)
“UDAN” (Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik) to provide connectivity to un-served and under-
served airports of the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● It aims to achieve its objective through revival of existing air-strips and airports to make
flying affordable to the common man who wants to travel to and fro the Tier 2 and Tier 3
cities of the country.
● UDAN has a unique market-based model. Airline routes are allocated to operators selected
through a competitive bidding mechanism.
● Under the scheme, nearly half of the seats in UDAN flights are offered at subsidised
fares, and the participating carriers are provided a certain amount of viability gap
funding (VGF) - an amount shared between the Centre and the concerned states.
● The scheme also offers waiver of certain statutory charges and taxes on jet fuel to
companies in order to offer affordable connectivity.
● The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is designated as the Implementing Agency under
this Scheme.
● Following four successful rounds of the scheme, the Ministry of Civil Aviation launched
UDAN 5.0 in 2023 to further enhance the connectivity to remote areas and achieve
last mile connectivity through helicopters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Why in News?
● Civil Aviation Minister K. Rammohan Naidu said that the government will extend the
regional air connectivity scheme UDAN for 10 more years.
● As many as 601 routes and 71 airports have been operationalised under the regional air
connectivity scheme.
Explanation
● In 2017, the Ministry of Civil Aviation launched the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)
“UDAN” (Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik) to provide connectivity to un-served and under-
served airports of the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● It aims to achieve its objective through revival of existing air-strips and airports to make
flying affordable to the common man who wants to travel to and fro the Tier 2 and Tier 3
cities of the country.
● UDAN has a unique market-based model. Airline routes are allocated to operators selected
through a competitive bidding mechanism.
● Under the scheme, nearly half of the seats in UDAN flights are offered at subsidised
fares, and the participating carriers are provided a certain amount of viability gap
funding (VGF) - an amount shared between the Centre and the concerned states.
● The scheme also offers waiver of certain statutory charges and taxes on jet fuel to
companies in order to offer affordable connectivity.
● The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is designated as the Implementing Agency under
this Scheme.
● Following four successful rounds of the scheme, the Ministry of Civil Aviation launched
UDAN 5.0 in 2023 to further enhance the connectivity to remote areas and achieve
last mile connectivity through helicopters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Why in News?
● Civil Aviation Minister K. Rammohan Naidu said that the government will extend the
regional air connectivity scheme UDAN for 10 more years.
● As many as 601 routes and 71 airports have been operationalised under the regional air
connectivity scheme.
4. With reference to Iodine, consider the following statements.
1) Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones.
2) Excess intake of iodine can lead to goitre.
3) In infants and children, iodine deficiency can cause neurodevelopmental deficits.
1) Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones.
2) Excess intake of iodine can lead to goitre.
3) In infants and children, iodine deficiency can cause neurodevelopmental deficits.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
5%
A. Only one
46%
B. Only two
48%
C. All three
0%
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation
Iodine deficiency
● Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine (T4) and
triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate metabolism and are crucial for fetal and infant
development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Found in foods and iodized salt, iodine exists in several forms, including sodium and
potassium salts, inorganic iodine (I2), iodate, and iodide.
● Iodide, the most common form, is quickly absorbed in the stomach and used by the
thyroid for hormone production. Most excess iodide is excreted through urine.
● Iodine deficiency arises when the body lacks sufficient iodine.
Adverse effects
● Iodine deficiency has multiple adverse effects on growth and development and is the
most common cause of preventable intellectual disability in the world.
● If a person’s iodine intake falls below approximately 10–20 mcg/day, hypothyroidism
occurs, a condition that is frequently accompanied by goitre. Goitre is usually the earliest
clinical sign of iodine deficiency. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
○ Goiter is swelling in the neck that occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges.
● In pregnant women, iodine deficiency of this magnitude can cause major
neurodevelopmental deficits and growth retardation in the fetus as well as
miscarriage and stillbirth.
● In infants and children, iodine deficiency can also cause neurodevelopmental deficits.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Why in News?
● World Iodine Deficiency Day, also known as Global Iodine Deficiency Disorders Prevention
Day, is observed annually on 21st October.
● The day aims to raise awareness about the essential role of iodine in maintaining good health and to emphasize the consequences of iodine deficiency.
Explanation
Iodine deficiency
● Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine (T4) and
triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate metabolism and are crucial for fetal and infant
development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● Found in foods and iodized salt, iodine exists in several forms, including sodium and
potassium salts, inorganic iodine (I2), iodate, and iodide.
● Iodide, the most common form, is quickly absorbed in the stomach and used by the
thyroid for hormone production. Most excess iodide is excreted through urine.
● Iodine deficiency arises when the body lacks sufficient iodine.
Adverse effects
● Iodine deficiency has multiple adverse effects on growth and development and is the
most common cause of preventable intellectual disability in the world.
● If a person’s iodine intake falls below approximately 10–20 mcg/day, hypothyroidism
occurs, a condition that is frequently accompanied by goitre. Goitre is usually the earliest
clinical sign of iodine deficiency. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
○ Goiter is swelling in the neck that occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges.
● In pregnant women, iodine deficiency of this magnitude can cause major
neurodevelopmental deficits and growth retardation in the fetus as well as
miscarriage and stillbirth.
● In infants and children, iodine deficiency can also cause neurodevelopmental deficits.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Why in News?
● World Iodine Deficiency Day, also known as Global Iodine Deficiency Disorders Prevention
Day, is observed annually on 21st October.
● The day aims to raise awareness about the essential role of iodine in maintaining good health and to emphasize the consequences of iodine deficiency.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Anonymous Quiz
19%
A. All five
67%
B. Only three
13%
C. Only one
1%
D. None
5.Which of the following pollutants are considered while measuring Air Quality Index (AQI)?
1) Carbon Monoxide
2) Lead
3) Ammonia
4) Arsenic
5) Benzene
1) Carbon Monoxide
2) Lead
3) Ammonia
4) Arsenic
5) Benzene
Answer: B
Explanation
About Air Quality Index (AQI)
● AQI is a number, which is a measure of air quality. The higher the AQI, the worse the
air.
● The colour-coded AQI index was launched by the Government of India in 2014, and it
helps the public and the government understand the condition of the air and what
subsequent measures are to be taken to combat the situation, based on its severity.
● There are six categories of AQI, namely ‘Good’ (0-50), ‘Satisfactory’ (51-100),
‘Moderately polluted’ (101-200), ‘Poor’ (201-300), ‘Very Poor’ (301-400), and ‘Severe’
(401-500).
● The pollutants measured include PM 10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Sulphur Dioxide
Ozone, Carbon Monoxide, Lead, Ammonia. Hence, answer is option B.
What is the impact of these pollutants?
● Among the more harmful pollutants are those of a smaller size, such as particulate matter
(PM) 2.5, which is an atmospheric particulate matter of diameter smaller than 2.5
micrometres.
● It causes respiratory problems and reduces visibility. The particles can only be detected
with the help of an electron microscope because they are so small.
● Due to their size, the PM 2.5 particles can easily bypass the nose and throat and can
easily enter the circulatory system. The particles can also lead to chronic diseases such
as asthma, heart attack, bronchitis and other respiratory problems.
Explanation
About Air Quality Index (AQI)
● AQI is a number, which is a measure of air quality. The higher the AQI, the worse the
air.
● The colour-coded AQI index was launched by the Government of India in 2014, and it
helps the public and the government understand the condition of the air and what
subsequent measures are to be taken to combat the situation, based on its severity.
● There are six categories of AQI, namely ‘Good’ (0-50), ‘Satisfactory’ (51-100),
‘Moderately polluted’ (101-200), ‘Poor’ (201-300), ‘Very Poor’ (301-400), and ‘Severe’
(401-500).
● The pollutants measured include PM 10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Sulphur Dioxide
Ozone, Carbon Monoxide, Lead, Ammonia. Hence, answer is option B.
What is the impact of these pollutants?
● Among the more harmful pollutants are those of a smaller size, such as particulate matter
(PM) 2.5, which is an atmospheric particulate matter of diameter smaller than 2.5
micrometres.
● It causes respiratory problems and reduces visibility. The particles can only be detected
with the help of an electron microscope because they are so small.
● Due to their size, the PM 2.5 particles can easily bypass the nose and throat and can
easily enter the circulatory system. The particles can also lead to chronic diseases such
as asthma, heart attack, bronchitis and other respiratory problems.
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1. With reference to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements.
1) The Act provides use rights to minor and major forest produce.
2) Only persons belonging to Scheduled Tribes are eligible for recognition under the act.
3) A forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable as well as transferable.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements.
1) The Act provides use rights to minor and major forest produce.
2) Only persons belonging to Scheduled Tribes are eligible for recognition under the act.
3) A forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable as well as transferable.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Anonymous Quiz
24%
A. Only one
38%
B. Only two
15%
C. All three
23%
D. None
Answer: D
Explanation
About the Act
● The Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006 is a people-centric law for forests, which recognises the rights of forest- dwelling
communities to use and manage forest resources.
● With more than 150 million forest dwellers, the scope of FRA is immense to protect their
livelihoods, and engage them in sustainable forest management.
Rights under FRA
● Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to
a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the
concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
● Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to
pastoralist routes, etc. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced
displacement; and basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
● Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife.
Objective of the Act
● To undo the historical injustice occurred to the forest dwelling communities;
● To ensure land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest dwelling Scheduled
Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers;
● To strengthen the conservation regime of the forests by including the responsibilities
and authority of Forest Rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and
maintenance of ecological balance.
Eligibility
● To qualify as Other Traditional Forest Dweller (OTFD) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, two conditions need to be fulfilled:
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land for three generations (75 years) prior to
13-12-2005, and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs. Hence, statement
2 is incorrect. Non-ST are eligible for recognition as OTFD, provided these two
conditions are fulfilled.
● To qualify as a Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribe (FDST) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, three conditions must be satisfied by the applicant/s, who could be
“members or community”:
○ Must be a Scheduled Tribe in the area where the right is claimed; and
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land prior to 13-12-2005; and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs.
● The FRA provides that a forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not
alienable or transferable, and shall be registered jointly in the name of both the spouses in
case of married persons and in the name of the single head in the case of a household
headed by a single person. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Process of recognition of rights
● The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution
recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
● This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka)
and subsequently at the district level.
● The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and
Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level.
These committees also hear appeals.
● The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Rules, 2008, notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs for implementing the provisions of the
Act, provide for constitution of Forest Rights Committee by the Gram Sabha for assisting
it in its functions to –
○ prepare a list of claimants on forest rights;
○ verify claims as provided in the rules;
○ present their findings on the nature and extent of the claim before the Gram Sabha
for its consideration;
○ prepare the claims on behalf of Gram Sabha for community forest rights in the
prescribed form.
Explanation
About the Act
● The Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006 is a people-centric law for forests, which recognises the rights of forest- dwelling
communities to use and manage forest resources.
● With more than 150 million forest dwellers, the scope of FRA is immense to protect their
livelihoods, and engage them in sustainable forest management.
Rights under FRA
● Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to
a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the
concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
● Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to
pastoralist routes, etc. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced
displacement; and basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
● Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife.
Objective of the Act
● To undo the historical injustice occurred to the forest dwelling communities;
● To ensure land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest dwelling Scheduled
Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers;
● To strengthen the conservation regime of the forests by including the responsibilities
and authority of Forest Rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and
maintenance of ecological balance.
Eligibility
● To qualify as Other Traditional Forest Dweller (OTFD) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, two conditions need to be fulfilled:
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land for three generations (75 years) prior to
13-12-2005, and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs. Hence, statement
2 is incorrect. Non-ST are eligible for recognition as OTFD, provided these two
conditions are fulfilled.
● To qualify as a Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribe (FDST) and be eligible for recognition of
rights under FRA, three conditions must be satisfied by the applicant/s, who could be
“members or community”:
○ Must be a Scheduled Tribe in the area where the right is claimed; and
○ Primarily resided in forest or forests land prior to 13-12-2005; and
○ Depend on the forest or forest land for bonafide livelihood needs.
● The FRA provides that a forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not
alienable or transferable, and shall be registered jointly in the name of both the spouses in
case of married persons and in the name of the single head in the case of a household
headed by a single person. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Process of recognition of rights
● The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution
recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
● This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka)
and subsequently at the district level.
● The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and
Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level.
These committees also hear appeals.
● The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Rules, 2008, notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs for implementing the provisions of the
Act, provide for constitution of Forest Rights Committee by the Gram Sabha for assisting
it in its functions to –
○ prepare a list of claimants on forest rights;
○ verify claims as provided in the rules;
○ present their findings on the nature and extent of the claim before the Gram Sabha
for its consideration;
○ prepare the claims on behalf of Gram Sabha for community forest rights in the
prescribed form.
choose the correct option
Anonymous Quiz
49%
A. Network of space launch capabilities across the NATO alliance
11%
B. Network of nuclear triad across the NATO alliance
25%
C. Joint Artificial Intelligence Regulating body across the EU countries
15%
D. War Room that deals with the problem of space debris