Which of the following is not, by itself, an absolute contraindication to fibrinolytic therapy?
Anonymous Quiz
11%
A. Active internal bleeding at the time of assessment.
53%
B. An uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy performed eight weeks earlier.
16%
C. A previous intracranial haemorrhage, regardless of how long ago it occurred.
5%
D. A suspected acute aortic dissection causing the presenting chest pain.
16%
E. An ischaemic stroke that occurred six weeks before the current presentation.
Q1153. A 58-year-old man presents with an acute anterior STEMI 90 minutes after the onset of chest pain. The nearest PCI-capable centre is several hours away, and fibrinolysis is being considered. His history reveals that he underwent major abdominal surgery 10 days ago. He has no active external bleeding, and his blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg.
Which is the most appropriate approach to reperfusion?
A. Administer full-dose fibrinolysis immediately because the ECG confirms STEMI.
B. Delay all reperfusion until the postoperative wound has completely healed.
C. Prefer urgent primary PCI because recent major surgery substantially increases the bleeding risk of fibrinolysis.
D. Give half-dose fibrinolysis routinely to eliminate the bleeding risk associated with surgery.
E. Continue anticoagulation alone and arrange outpatient coronary angiography.
Which is the most appropriate approach to reperfusion?
A. Administer full-dose fibrinolysis immediately because the ECG confirms STEMI.
B. Delay all reperfusion until the postoperative wound has completely healed.
C. Prefer urgent primary PCI because recent major surgery substantially increases the bleeding risk of fibrinolysis.
D. Give half-dose fibrinolysis routinely to eliminate the bleeding risk associated with surgery.
E. Continue anticoagulation alone and arrange outpatient coronary angiography.