Plasmodium falciparum. (1) Very young ring form trophozoite. (2) Double
infection of single cell with young trophozoites, one a marginal form, the other a signet ring
form. (3,4) Young trophozoites showing double chromatin dots. (5-7) Developing
trophozoites. (8) Three medium trophozoites in one cell. (9) Trophozoite showing pigment in a
cell-containing Maurer spots. (10,11) Two trophozoites in each of two cells showing variation
of forms that parasites may assume. (12) Almost mature trophozoite showing haze of pigment
throughout cytoplasm. (13) Aestivoautumnal slender forms. (14) Mature trophozoite showing
clumped pigment. (15) Parasite in the process of initial chromatin division. (16-19) Various
phases of the development of the schizont. (20) Mature schizont. (21-24) Successive forms in
the development of the gametocyte, usually not found in the circulation. (25) Immature
macrogametocyte. (26) Mature macrogametocyte. (27) Immature microgametocyte. (28)
Mature microgametocyte.

Q16= SI units are the designated units employed by the International System of Units. The unit class that encompasses the seven fundamental quantities of measurement is

A. Base

B. Primary

C. Derived

D. Elemental

ANS=A

Q17=. Which of the following parameters does not have an effect on centrifugal force?

A. Temperature of the centrifuge

B. Mass of the material being centrifuged

C. Speed of rotation


D. Radius of the centrifuge



ANS=A

Q18= What class of weights should be used to check the calibration of analytical balances?

A. J

B. M

C. P

D. S

ANS=D

Q19= "To deliver" (TD) pipettes are identified by

A. Two etched bands near the top

B. Self-draining capacity

C. Dual-purpose pipette labels

D. Blue graduation levels





ANS=A



Q20=  If a laboratory needs to keep certain chemical materials dry, the apparatus used will be a

A. Buret

B. Desiccator

C. Separatory funnel

D. Vacuum





ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q21 = Which of the following is an advantage of the angle-head centrifuge over the horizontal-head centrifuge?

A. Less air friction

B. Smaller increase in sample temperature during centrifugation

C. Can be operated at a higher speed

D. All the above



ANSWER CLICK HERE



Q22=. The type of water desired for use in test methods requiring maximum accuracy and precision is

A. Distilled

B. Pure grade

C. Reagent grade

D. Special reagent water



ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q23= The speed of a centrifuge should be checked at least once every 3 months with a(n)

A. Tachometer

B. Wiper

C. Potentiometer


D. Ergometer

ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q24= The type of balance that uses an electromagnetic force to counterbalance the load placed on the pan is a(n)

A. Trip balance

B. Class A balance

C. Class S balance

D. Electronic balance



ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q25= Which of the following blood collection tube tops would contain a serum separator gel?

A. Blue

B. Grey

C. Lavender

D. Speckled



ANSWER CLICK HERE
Q26= When performing a venipuncture, which of the following is the proper order of draw for evacuated blood collection tubes?

A. Sterile specimen, light blue top, and plain red top

B. Light blue top, plain red top, and sterile specimen

C. Lavender top, light blue top, plain red top

D. Green top, sterile specimen, and plain red top



ANSWER CLICK HERE

Laboratory Quality Assessment

Q27= What term applies to the sum of all the values in a set of numbers divided by the number of values in that set?

A. Median

B. Mode

C. Arithmetic mean

D. Geometric mean




ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q28= Calculate the coefficient of variation (percent) for a set of data where the mean (x) = 89 mg/dL and 2 standard deviations 0) = 14 mg/dL.

A. 7.8

B. 7.9

C. 15.7


D. 15.8





ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q29= Which of the following parameters is not needed to determine the predictive value of a positive test?

A. Sensitivity

B. Specificity

C. Disease prevalence

D. Precision



ANSWER CLICK HERE

Q30= Which of the following must be known in order to determine the sensitivity of a test?

A. True positives and false negatives

B. True negatives and false positives

C. True positives and false positives

D. True negatives and false negatives



ANSWER CLICK HERE

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A patient diagnosed with malaria has been treated but continues to experience symptoms weeks later due to hypnozoites. Which species is responsible for this?
    a) Plasmodium falciparum  
    b) Plasmodium vivax  
    c) Plasmodium malariae  
    d) Plasmodium knowlesi

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➊ A child diagnosed with giardiasis has been treated successfully. What is the best advice for preventing reinfection?
    a) Avoid all dairy products 
    b) Drink only bottled water 
    c) Practice good hand hygiene and avoid untreated water 
    d) Take antibiotics regularly 

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Cultural characteristics of Yersinia pestis:
1. When grown in a flask of broth with oil / ghee floated on top (ghee
broth) a characteristic growth occurs which hangs down into the
broth from the surface, resembling stalactite
2. On nutrient agar, colonies are small, delicate, transparent discs
becoming opaque on continued incubation.
3. On blood agar colonies are dark brown due to absorption of the
hemin pigment.
4. On MacConkey agar colourless colonies are formed
5. In broth a flocculent growth occurs at the bottom and along the
sides of the tube.


Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Ananthanarayanan, 8th edition
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WBC morphology

🔺Cary-Blair transport medium is the recommended medium for transporting enteric bacteria including Vibrio cholerae

🔺 Other media that can be used include
👉 alkaline peptone water (APW), alkaline, bile-salt, tellurite peptone broth, and sea-salt medium. 

#.Alkaline peptone water (APW) 
👉 A special medium for Vibrio organisms
- Can be used as a transport and enrichment medium

#.Alkaline, bile-salt, tellurite peptone broth 
A good method for transporting specimens from the field to the laboratory
👉 Can be used for short-term enrichment

#. Sea-salt medium 
Can maintain V. cholerae for up to four weeks

#. Amies transport medium
👉 It is a semi-solid gel used to transport clinical swab samples to a laboratory for analysis. It's a modified version of Stuart transport medium, with the addition of charcoal and an inorganic phosphate buffer. 
👉 It is a transport medium used to preserve the viability of anaerobes such as Neisseria gonorrhea and other pathogens from swabs.


👉 was confirmed as a useful transport medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae

While both are serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis, "L1-L3" serotypes are associated with the sexually transmitted disease Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), while "D-K" serotypes are primarily responsible for causing genitourinary tract infections like cervicitis and urethritis, including rectal infections in some cases; essentially, L1-L3 are more invasive and cause a different disease presentation than D-K serotypes. 
Key points to remember:

L1-L3 (Lymphogranuloma venereum):
These serotypes are linked to a more severe infection with potential for lymphatic involvement, often presenting with genital papule, painful buboe and systemic symptoms. 

D-K (Genital tract infections):
These serotypes are the most common cause of sexually transmitted chlamydia infections, usually causing symptoms like discharge and discomfort in the genital area.
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For H. pylori antigen detection, the optimal temperature for testing is typically room temperature (around 15-30°C), as most rapid test kits and ELISA assays recommend bringing the specimen and test components to room temperature before performing the test; however, if storing a stool sample for later analysis, it's best to keep it refrigerated at 2-8°C to preserve antigen integrity. 
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about HIV receptor
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily infects immune cells by targeting specific cell surface receptors and
co-receptors.

1.Primary Receptor: CD4
   - Function: HIV first binds to the CD4 receptor, a glycoprotein found on helper T-cells (CD4+ T-cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells.
   - Role: CD4 acts as the main attachment point for the viral envelope protein gp120.

2. Co-receptors: CCR5 or CXCR4
   - After binding to CD4, HIV requires a co-receptor to enter the cell:
     - CCR5: Used by R5-tropic strains (most common in early infection).
     - CXCR4: Used by X4-tropic strains (often emerges in later stages of infection).
   - Genetic Resistance: Individuals with a CCR5-Δ32 mutation lack functional CCR5 and are highly resistant to HIV infection.

3. Viral Entry Mechanism
   1. Attachment: HIV gp120 binds to CD4, triggering a conformational change.
   2. Co-receptor Binding: gp120 then interacts with CCR5 or CXCR4.
   3. Fusion: The viral envelope protein gp41 mediates fusion of the viral and host cell membranes, allowing viral RNA to enter the cell
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Highlight of fleas and lice