27-year-old male patient Post splenectomy for grade 5 splenic injury as a result of MVC.
which is of the following hormone supposed to be decreased?

64-year-old woman K/C HTN, and AF presents to ED with 8h generalized abdominal pain associated with nausea and diarrhea. Sever 10/10. O/E abdomen is soft, nondistended, and mildly tender Labs: WBC: 12 and lactate: 4
What is the most like diagnosis?

44-year-old man presents with perianal pain and with diarrhea sometimes bloody. He has on-off abdominal pain for months. Vitals: BP: 123/65 HR: 106 T: 39.1 O/E: 3*3 tender perianal mass with fluctuation. WBC 19.
What is the most appropriate management?

32-year-old female patient 16D post CS, presenting with abdominal pain, secretion of greenish discharge from the wound and. She has previous multiple CS with adhesions. CT fistula tract between small bowel and skin.
What is your initial management?

73-year-old male after perforated diverticulitis with huge contamination, admitted to ICU, and received 6 L IVF and 1 PRBC over 12 hrs. Broad spectrum antibiotics were given. BP 70/45 P: 125 T: 39 O2: 93%. WBC 18
What is the appropriate intervention?

37-year-old male patient brought as case of RTA. He is complaining of sever chest pain and shouting. O/E: equal breath sounds bilaterally. Elevated JVP BP: 90/60 P: 92.
What is the next step?

46-year-old asymptomatic man. His father diagnosed of colon cancer at age 63 years.
Which of the following is the most appropriate colorectal cancer screening strategy for him?

36-year-old man presents with 24h abdominal pain, distention, vomiting, constipation. PSH: appendectomy. O/E: tenderness and exaggerated bowel sounds. Amylase 288 WBC 11.4 Erect X-ray: Multiple air fluid level with exaggerated bowel sound
What is next?

33-year-old female presents with a lump in her neck. O/E confirmed enlarged right cervical lymph nodes with normal thyroid gland. She underwent FNAB. Histopathology: Normal follicular thyroid cells
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

72-year-old man presents with nausea and obstipation. PSHx: open appendectomy. O/E: abdomen is distended and mildly tender without peritonitis. CT abdomen: closed-loop obstruction.
What is the best next step in management of this patient?

65-year-old woman presents with a 3 months history of nausea, vomiting and anorexia. CT: mass in the antrum. The diagnosis of gastric outlet obstruction is made.
What metabolic abnormalities would be found in this patient?

42-year-old female presented with unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge for 6 months. O/E: normal nipple with no palpable breast mass or axillary LN enlargement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?