First Aid step 1 2026 videos,books and qbank
7K subscribers
162 photos
997 videos
24 files
126 links
πŸ’«2026 First Aid step 1 VideosπŸ’«
πŸ’«πŸ’₯Welcome!
Here is the original place for Providing FullFirst Aid step 1 ,
Download Telegram
Educational objective: Topical capsaicin causes defunctionalization of afferent pain fibers and depletion of substance P. Initial application results in a burning and stinging sensation, but chronic exposure leads to reduced pain transmission.
A 24-year-old man comes to the physician due to excessive daytime sleepiness. The patient is a college student whose symptoms started around age 12, when he began needing more sleep than his peers to feel refreshed. Two years later, he started having daily episodes of sudden weakness, consistently triggered by laughter or crying, in which his head would nod or his knees would buckle for about 30 seconds. The patient also describes times when he was unable to move for several minutes after awakening from sleep. He mentions nightly dreams that seem very real, often featuring activities that he had been engaged in during the preceding day.
If measured, which of the following compounds is most likely to be abnormal in this patient's cerebrospinal fluid?
Anonymous Quiz
10%
A. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
8%
B. 14-3-3 protein
20%
C.Homovanillic acid
34%
D.Hypocretin-1
29%
E. Melatonin
Educational objective: Hypocretin-1 {orexin-A) and hypocretin-2 (orexin-B) are neuropeptides produced in the lateral hypothalamus that promote wakefulness and inhibit REM sleep-related phenomena. Most patients who have narcolepsy with cataplexy have undetectable levels of hypocretin-1 in their cerebrospinal fluid.
A 36-year-old woman is evaluated for several months of tingling and numbness of the right hand and fingers that has progressed to dull, aching pain. The symptoms initially were intermittent but have become persistent, with the pain worsening overnight. The patient works as an office secretary and has had difficulty typing and holding the phone due to hand weakness. On examination, she has weakness of thumb opposition and atrophy of the thenar eminence. The patient attempted treatment with conservative measures but had no significant improvement and has now been referred for surgery.
During surgery, incision of which of the following structures is most likely to improve this patient's symptoms?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A. Fibrous flexor sheaths
16%
B. Flexor carpi ulnaris aponeurosis
22%
C.Palmar aponeurosis
19%
D.Synovial sheaths of flexor tendons
36%
E. Transverse carpal ligament
Educational objective: The carpal tunnel is formed by the carpal bones and the transverse carpal ligament (flexor retinaculum). Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel with 9 flexor tendons. Longitudinal incision of the transverse carpal ligament can decrease pressure within the carpal tunnel, improving patients' symptoms.
A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to acute onset of a severe headache and dizziness. He describes it as a throbbing that localizes to the back of his head, with associated vertigo and mild nausea. The patient has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and a recent diagnosis of lung adenocarcinoma. He has smoked 1-2 packs of cigarettes daily for the past 30 years. His temperature is 36. 7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 170/96 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. Noncontrast head CT reveals an acute hemorrhage in the cerebellar vermis without mass effect or midline shift.
Which of the following neurologic findings is most likely to be present during this patient's physical examination?
Anonymous Quiz
7%
A. Complete ptosis
7%
B. Dysphagia
14%
C. Hemiparesis
13%
D.Limb dysmetria
11%
E. Resting tremor
47%
F. Truncal ataxia
Educational objective: Acute lesions to the cerebellar vermis typically cause truncal and gait ataxia due to impaired modulation of the medial-descending motor systems. Involvement of the lower vermis and the flocculonodular lobe also causes vertigo/nystagmus due to dysregulation of the vestibular nuclear complex.
A 45-year-old woman is evaluated for numbness and painful tingling of the right hand. The symptoms began 2 months ago and are especially prominent after she plays tennis. On examination, there is diminished sensation in the lateral palm, thenar eminence, and palmar aspect of the first 3Y:z digits of the right hand.
Educational objective: In the forearm, the median nerve courses between the humeral and ulnar heads of the pronator teres muscle and between the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles. Compression prior to the takeoff of the palmar branch (eg, between the heads of the pronator teres} results in sensory loss over the lateral palm and palmar aspects of the first 3~ digits.
πŸŽ‰ FREE AMBOSS Subscriptions: Join Our Group & Boost Your Medical Studies! πŸŽ‰

https://t.me/+B5IGusj5YoxmOTQ0

Attention medical students & professionals! We're giving away FREE AMBOSS subscription accounts to help you ace Step 1, Step 2 CK, Step 3, and Shelf Exams. Don't miss this amazing opportunity to access:

βœ… Comprehensive, up-to-date medical library
βœ… 5,000+ high-quality multiple-choice questions
βœ… Detailed explanations & learning cards
βœ… Customizable study plans
βœ… Advanced analytics to track progress

Why wait? Enhance your medical education without spending a dime!

https://t.me/+B5IGusj5YoxmOTQ0

πŸš€ Join our exclusive AMBOSS group TODAY to get your FREE subscription! πŸš€
πŸ‘‰ Contact @AMBOSS_Subscribe2023 on Telegram and start unlocking the power of AMBOSS for FREE! πŸ‘ˆ

https://t.me/+B5IGusj5YoxmOTQ0
A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office for prenatal evaluation. The patient says she had been using condoms for birth control and unintentionally became pregnant. Her last menstrual period was 2 months ago, and home pregnancy tests are positive. She has not been taking prenatal vitamins. The patient has a healthy, 5-year-old daughter who was born after an uneventful pregnancy. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and her joint symptoms are controlled with methotrexate therapy. The patient has no other medical conditions and takes no other medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum 13-hCG is elevated, and transvaginal ultrasonograehy shows a normal gestational sac and embryo.
This patient's unborn child is at the greatest risk for which of the following congenital defects?
Anonymous Quiz
9%
A. Branchial arch anomalies
68%
B. Neural tube defects
8%
C.Renal dysplasia
5%
D.Sacral agenesis
5%
E. Skeletal lesions
4%
F. Thyroid hypoplasia
Educational objective: Methotrexate and other folic acid antagonists adversely affect rapidly dividing cells (eg, epithelial cells, stem cells, neural tube cells) by limiting the production of precursors essential to DNA synthesis and repair. If used in the first trimester of pregnancy, these drugs can cause major congenital abnormalities (eg, cardiovascular abnormalities, neural tube defects).
A 55-year-old man comes to the office due to intermittent shortness of breath, cough, and chest tightness over the past 3 months. The patient had asthma as a child that improved in adolescence, and he has not required inhalers or steroids since. He feels that his current symptoms are similar to his prior asthma symptoms. The patient was recently diagnosed with essential tremor, which has improved with medical therapy; he has no other chronic medical conditions. He is a lifetime nonsmoker and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 125175 mm Hg, pulse is 58/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals bilateral scattered expiratory wheezes. Heart sounds are normal and there is no extremity edema.
This patient's symptom recurrence is most likely attributable to a medication that affects which of the following steps?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
A
13%
B
13%
C
24%
D
17%
E
27%
F
Educational objective: Beta blockers are used in the treatment of essential tremor. Propranolol, a nonselective beta blocker, is the most commonly used therapy and prevents the interaction of epinephrine and norepinephrine with beta-1 and beta-2 receptors to relieve tremor symptoms. However, inhibition of pulmonary beta-2 receptors in patients with underlying reactive airway disease can cause bronchoconstriction, leading to cough, wheeze, and dyspnea.