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100 JAMB QUESTIONS ON CHEMISTRY APRIL BATCH 1 AND 2
1. Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Melting of ice
B. Boiling of water
C. Rusting of iron
D. Breaking of glass
Answer: C
2. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄?
A. +4
B. +6
C. -2
D. 0
Answer: B
3. Which of the following gases is not a greenhouse gas?
A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. N₂
D. H₂O vapour
Answer: C
4. Which particle has the same number of protons and electrons but different number of neutrons?
A. Isomer
B. Isotope
C. Ion
D. Molecule
Answer: B
5. What is the molar volume of an ideal gas at STP?
A. 22.4 dm³
B. 24 dm³
C. 1.0 dm³
D. 2.24 dm³
Answer: A
6. Which of the following represents a covalent compound?
A. NaCl
B. MgO
C. H₂O
D. CaCl₂
Answer: C
7. Which of these processes is endothermic?
A. Freezing of water
B. Condensation of steam
C. Dissolution of NH₄Cl in water
D. Combustion of methane
Answer: C
8. What is the pH of a solution with [H⁺] = 1 × 10⁻⁴ mol/dm³?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 7
D. 2
Answer: A
9. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH?
A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Propanol
D. Butanol
Answer: B
10. Which of the following is an alkyne?
A. C₂H₆
B. C₂H₄
C. C₂H₂
D. CH₄
Answer: C
11. What is the main ore of aluminum?
A. Hematite
B. Bauxite
C. Galena
D. Magnetite
Answer: B
12. Which of these elements has the highest electronegativity?
A. Fluorine
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine
Answer: A
13. What is the formula mass of Na₂CO₃?
A. 106 g/mol
B. 84 g/mol
C. 40 g/mol
D. 23 g/mol
Answer: A
14. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄?
A. +2
B. +4
C. +6
D. +7
Answer: D
15. Which of the following is a base?
A. H₂SO₄
B. NaOH
C. HCl
D. CO₂
Answer: B
16. Which of the following shows periodicity?
A. Atomic number
B. Isotopy
C. Mass number
D. Ionization energy
Answer: D
17. Which of the following is not a property of acids?
A. Sour taste
B. Turns blue litmus red
C. Reacts with bases
D. Soapy feel
Answer: D
18. The major constituent of natural gas is:
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Butane
D. Propane
Answer: A
19. What is the number of neutrons in ³⁹₁₉K?
A. 20
B. 19
C. 39
D. 58
Answer: A
20. The process of separating liquids with different boiling points is called:
A. Filtration
B. Crystallization
C. Distillation
D. Sublimation
Answer: C
21. What is the shape of the water molecule?
A. Linear
B. Tetrahedral
C. Angular (V-shaped)
D. Trigonal planar
Answer: C
22. Which element forms a basic oxide?
A. CO₂
B. SO₂
C. Na₂O
Did. NO₂
Answer: C
23. The number of unpaired electrons in an oxygen atom is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C
24. Which of the following has giant covalent structure?
A. NaCl
B. H₂O
C. Diamond
D. CH₄
Answer: C
25. Which of the following gases is monoatomic?
A. O₂
B. N₂
C. Ne
D. Cl₂
Answer: C
26. Which process is used to obtain pure water from salt water?
A. Filtration
B. Decantation
C. Distillation
D. Crystallization
Answer: C
27. Which of these best describes the solubility of gases in water?
A. Increases with temperature
B. Decreases with pressure
C. Increases with pressure
D. Independent of pressure
Answer: C
28. Which of the following undergoes addition reaction?
A. Alkane
B. Alkene
C. Alkyne
D. Aromatic hydrocarbon
Answer: B
29. What is the empirical formula of a compound with 40% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O?
A. CHO
B. CH₂O
C. C₂H₄O₂
D. C₆H₁₂O₆
Answer: B
30. The monomer of polyethylene is:
A. Ethene
B. Ethane
C. Propene
D. Methane
Answer: A
31. Which of these metals will not liberate hydrogen from dilute HCl?
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Magnesium
Answer: C
32. The device used to measure atmospheric pressure is called:
A. Thermometer
B. Barometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Manometer
Answer: B
33. The compound that decolorizes bromine water is:
A. Ethane
B. Ethene
C. Methane
D. Ethanol
Answer: B
34. What is the major constituent of air by volume?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Argon
Answer: B
35. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
A. Na₂O
B. ZnO
C. CO₂
D. SO₂
Answer: B
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1. Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Melting of ice
B. Boiling of water
C. Rusting of iron
D. Breaking of glass
Answer: C
2. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄?
A. +4
B. +6
C. -2
D. 0
Answer: B
3. Which of the following gases is not a greenhouse gas?
A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. N₂
D. H₂O vapour
Answer: C
4. Which particle has the same number of protons and electrons but different number of neutrons?
A. Isomer
B. Isotope
C. Ion
D. Molecule
Answer: B
5. What is the molar volume of an ideal gas at STP?
A. 22.4 dm³
B. 24 dm³
C. 1.0 dm³
D. 2.24 dm³
Answer: A
6. Which of the following represents a covalent compound?
A. NaCl
B. MgO
C. H₂O
D. CaCl₂
Answer: C
7. Which of these processes is endothermic?
A. Freezing of water
B. Condensation of steam
C. Dissolution of NH₄Cl in water
D. Combustion of methane
Answer: C
8. What is the pH of a solution with [H⁺] = 1 × 10⁻⁴ mol/dm³?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 7
D. 2
Answer: A
9. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH?
A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Propanol
D. Butanol
Answer: B
10. Which of the following is an alkyne?
A. C₂H₆
B. C₂H₄
C. C₂H₂
D. CH₄
Answer: C
11. What is the main ore of aluminum?
A. Hematite
B. Bauxite
C. Galena
D. Magnetite
Answer: B
12. Which of these elements has the highest electronegativity?
A. Fluorine
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine
Answer: A
13. What is the formula mass of Na₂CO₃?
A. 106 g/mol
B. 84 g/mol
C. 40 g/mol
D. 23 g/mol
Answer: A
14. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄?
A. +2
B. +4
C. +6
D. +7
Answer: D
15. Which of the following is a base?
A. H₂SO₄
B. NaOH
C. HCl
D. CO₂
Answer: B
16. Which of the following shows periodicity?
A. Atomic number
B. Isotopy
C. Mass number
D. Ionization energy
Answer: D
17. Which of the following is not a property of acids?
A. Sour taste
B. Turns blue litmus red
C. Reacts with bases
D. Soapy feel
Answer: D
18. The major constituent of natural gas is:
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Butane
D. Propane
Answer: A
19. What is the number of neutrons in ³⁹₁₉K?
A. 20
B. 19
C. 39
D. 58
Answer: A
20. The process of separating liquids with different boiling points is called:
A. Filtration
B. Crystallization
C. Distillation
D. Sublimation
Answer: C
21. What is the shape of the water molecule?
A. Linear
B. Tetrahedral
C. Angular (V-shaped)
D. Trigonal planar
Answer: C
22. Which element forms a basic oxide?
A. CO₂
B. SO₂
C. Na₂O
Did. NO₂
Answer: C
23. The number of unpaired electrons in an oxygen atom is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C
24. Which of the following has giant covalent structure?
A. NaCl
B. H₂O
C. Diamond
D. CH₄
Answer: C
25. Which of the following gases is monoatomic?
A. O₂
B. N₂
C. Ne
D. Cl₂
Answer: C
26. Which process is used to obtain pure water from salt water?
A. Filtration
B. Decantation
C. Distillation
D. Crystallization
Answer: C
27. Which of these best describes the solubility of gases in water?
A. Increases with temperature
B. Decreases with pressure
C. Increases with pressure
D. Independent of pressure
Answer: C
28. Which of the following undergoes addition reaction?
A. Alkane
B. Alkene
C. Alkyne
D. Aromatic hydrocarbon
Answer: B
29. What is the empirical formula of a compound with 40% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O?
A. CHO
B. CH₂O
C. C₂H₄O₂
D. C₆H₁₂O₆
Answer: B
30. The monomer of polyethylene is:
A. Ethene
B. Ethane
C. Propene
D. Methane
Answer: A
31. Which of these metals will not liberate hydrogen from dilute HCl?
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Magnesium
Answer: C
32. The device used to measure atmospheric pressure is called:
A. Thermometer
B. Barometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Manometer
Answer: B
33. The compound that decolorizes bromine water is:
A. Ethane
B. Ethene
C. Methane
D. Ethanol
Answer: B
34. What is the major constituent of air by volume?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Argon
Answer: B
35. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
A. Na₂O
B. ZnO
C. CO₂
D. SO₂
Answer: B
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(2a)
(i) Communication: Offices facilitate communication within and outside the organization through various channels like email, phone, and meetings.
(ii) Record Keeping: Offices maintain accurate and up-to-date records of transactions, decisions, and activities for future reference.
(iii) Administration: Offices oversee daily operations, ensuring smooth workflow, productivity, and efficient use of resources.
(iv) Decision Making: Offices provide a platform for decision-making, problem-solving, and strategic planning.
(v) Representation: Offices represent the organization to clients, customers, and stakeholders, projecting a professional image.
(2b)
(i) Current accounts are designed for business transactions, while savings accounts are for personal savings and investments.
(ii) Savings accounts typically earn interest, while current accounts may have lower or no interest rates.
(iii) Savings accounts often have withdrawal limits, while current accounts usually don't have such restrictions.
(iv) Current accounts often require a minimum balance to avoid maintenance fees, while savings accounts may have lower or no minimum balance requirements.
(v) Current accounts are designed for frequent transactions, while savings accounts are meant for less frequent transactions.
(3a)
(i) Bearer Cheque: A cheque payable to anyone who presents it, without specifying a particular payee.
(ii) Post-Dated Cheque: A cheque with a future date, which can't be cashed until that date, allowing the issuer to delay payment.
(iii) Stale Cheque: A cheque that's not presented for payment within a reasonable time (usually 6 months), which may not be honored by the bank.
(3b) Information on Trading Documents
(i) Catalogue:
a. Product descriptions and specifications
b. Prices and discounts
c. Images or illustrations
(ii) Order:
a. Customer information (name, address, contact details)
b. Product details (quantity, description, price)
c. Delivery instructions
(iii) Invoice:
a. Invoice number and date
b. Customer information (name, address)
c. Total amount due, including taxes and discounts
(3c)
(i) Debit Note: To notify a customer of an amount owed due to errors, returns, or additional charges.
(ii) Credit Note: To notify a customer of a credit due to returns, refunds, or overpayment.
(4a)
(i) Fast and reliable delivery, ensuring timely arrival of packages.
(ii) Tracking and security features, providing peace of mind and minimizing losses.
(iii) Convenience and flexibility, allowing customers to choose delivery options and schedules.
(iv) Wide coverage area, enabling delivery to various locations.
(4b)
(i) Effective communication, fostering open dialogue and transparency.
(ii) Training and development programs, enhancing skills and knowledge.
(iii) Recognition and reward systems, motivating employees and boosting morale.
(iv) Team-building activities, promoting collaboration and camaraderie.
(v) Feedback mechanisms, allowing employees to share concerns and suggestions.
(5a)
(i) Human error, such as negligence or distraction.
(ii) Equipment failure, due to poor maintenance or design flaws.
(iii) Poor working conditions, including inadequate lighting, ventilation, or safety measures.
(iv) Lack of training or supervision, leading to inadequate knowledge or skills.
(5b)
(i) Protecting employees' physical and mental well-being.
(ii) Reducing accidents and injuries, minimizing downtime and costs.
(iii) Improving productivity and morale, enhancing job satisfaction and engagement.
(iv) Complying with regulatory requirements, avoiding fines and penalties.
(6a)
(i) Facilitates decision-making, enabling collective input and consensus.
(ii) Encourages collaboration and discussion, fostering teamwork and idea-sharing.
(iii) Builds team spirit and communication, promoting unity and cooperation.
(iv) Provides a platform for informatio
n-sharing, updates, and announcements.
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(i) Communication: Offices facilitate communication within and outside the organization through various channels like email, phone, and meetings.
(ii) Record Keeping: Offices maintain accurate and up-to-date records of transactions, decisions, and activities for future reference.
(iii) Administration: Offices oversee daily operations, ensuring smooth workflow, productivity, and efficient use of resources.
(iv) Decision Making: Offices provide a platform for decision-making, problem-solving, and strategic planning.
(v) Representation: Offices represent the organization to clients, customers, and stakeholders, projecting a professional image.
(2b)
(i) Current accounts are designed for business transactions, while savings accounts are for personal savings and investments.
(ii) Savings accounts typically earn interest, while current accounts may have lower or no interest rates.
(iii) Savings accounts often have withdrawal limits, while current accounts usually don't have such restrictions.
(iv) Current accounts often require a minimum balance to avoid maintenance fees, while savings accounts may have lower or no minimum balance requirements.
(v) Current accounts are designed for frequent transactions, while savings accounts are meant for less frequent transactions.
(3a)
(i) Bearer Cheque: A cheque payable to anyone who presents it, without specifying a particular payee.
(ii) Post-Dated Cheque: A cheque with a future date, which can't be cashed until that date, allowing the issuer to delay payment.
(iii) Stale Cheque: A cheque that's not presented for payment within a reasonable time (usually 6 months), which may not be honored by the bank.
(3b) Information on Trading Documents
(i) Catalogue:
a. Product descriptions and specifications
b. Prices and discounts
c. Images or illustrations
(ii) Order:
a. Customer information (name, address, contact details)
b. Product details (quantity, description, price)
c. Delivery instructions
(iii) Invoice:
a. Invoice number and date
b. Customer information (name, address)
c. Total amount due, including taxes and discounts
(3c)
(i) Debit Note: To notify a customer of an amount owed due to errors, returns, or additional charges.
(ii) Credit Note: To notify a customer of a credit due to returns, refunds, or overpayment.
(4a)
(i) Fast and reliable delivery, ensuring timely arrival of packages.
(ii) Tracking and security features, providing peace of mind and minimizing losses.
(iii) Convenience and flexibility, allowing customers to choose delivery options and schedules.
(iv) Wide coverage area, enabling delivery to various locations.
(4b)
(i) Effective communication, fostering open dialogue and transparency.
(ii) Training and development programs, enhancing skills and knowledge.
(iii) Recognition and reward systems, motivating employees and boosting morale.
(iv) Team-building activities, promoting collaboration and camaraderie.
(v) Feedback mechanisms, allowing employees to share concerns and suggestions.
(5a)
(i) Human error, such as negligence or distraction.
(ii) Equipment failure, due to poor maintenance or design flaws.
(iii) Poor working conditions, including inadequate lighting, ventilation, or safety measures.
(iv) Lack of training or supervision, leading to inadequate knowledge or skills.
(5b)
(i) Protecting employees' physical and mental well-being.
(ii) Reducing accidents and injuries, minimizing downtime and costs.
(iii) Improving productivity and morale, enhancing job satisfaction and engagement.
(iv) Complying with regulatory requirements, avoiding fines and penalties.
(6a)
(i) Facilitates decision-making, enabling collective input and consensus.
(ii) Encourages collaboration and discussion, fostering teamwork and idea-sharing.
(iii) Builds team spirit and communication, promoting unity and cooperation.
(iv) Provides a platform for informatio
n-sharing, updates, and announcements.
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(6b)
(i) Casting Vote: The deciding vote cast by the chairperson in case of a tie, breaking the deadlock.
(ii) Adjournment: Postponing a meeting to a later date or time, allowing for further discussion or preparation.
(iii) In-Camera: A private meeting excluding the public or certain members, often for sensitive or confidential matters.
(iv) Acclamation: Approval or decision made without a formal vote, often through unanimous consent or applause.
(7a)
(i) Clarity and concision, presenting information in a clear and concise manner.
(ii) Accuracy and objectivity, ensuring factual and unbiased content.
(iii) Relevance and usefulness, providing valuable insights and recommendations.
(iv) Organization and structure, presenting information in a logical and coherent manner.
(v) Effective use of visual aids, such as charts, graphs, and tables.
(vi) Proper citation and referencing, crediting sources and maintaining academic integrity.
(7b)
(i) Limited Capital: Small-scale businesses often start with limited financial resources, which can restrict their growth, investment, and operational capacity.
(ii) Local Market Focus: These businesses typically operate within a specific geographic area, catering to local customers and communities.
(iii) Owner-Managed: Small-scale businesses are often managed directly by their owners, who oversee daily operations, make key decisions, and drive the business forward.
(iv) Flexibility: Small businesses can quickly adapt to changes in the market, customer needs, or industry trends, allowing them to stay competitive.
(v) Personalized Customer Service: Small-scale businesses often prioritize building strong relationships with customers, providing personalized service, and tailoring solutions to meet their needs.
(vi) Limited Market Share: Due to their size and scope, small-scale businesses typically have a smaller market share compared to larger corporations.
(vii) Simple Organizational Structure: Small businesses usually have a flat organizational structure, with fewer layers of management and decision-making, which can facilitate faster decision-making.
(viii) Entrepreneurial Spirit: Small-scale businesses are often driven by the entrepreneurial spirit of their owners, who take calculated risks, innovate, and strive to achieve success.
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(i) Casting Vote: The deciding vote cast by the chairperson in case of a tie, breaking the deadlock.
(ii) Adjournment: Postponing a meeting to a later date or time, allowing for further discussion or preparation.
(iii) In-Camera: A private meeting excluding the public or certain members, often for sensitive or confidential matters.
(iv) Acclamation: Approval or decision made without a formal vote, often through unanimous consent or applause.
(7a)
(i) Clarity and concision, presenting information in a clear and concise manner.
(ii) Accuracy and objectivity, ensuring factual and unbiased content.
(iii) Relevance and usefulness, providing valuable insights and recommendations.
(iv) Organization and structure, presenting information in a logical and coherent manner.
(v) Effective use of visual aids, such as charts, graphs, and tables.
(vi) Proper citation and referencing, crediting sources and maintaining academic integrity.
(7b)
(i) Limited Capital: Small-scale businesses often start with limited financial resources, which can restrict their growth, investment, and operational capacity.
(ii) Local Market Focus: These businesses typically operate within a specific geographic area, catering to local customers and communities.
(iii) Owner-Managed: Small-scale businesses are often managed directly by their owners, who oversee daily operations, make key decisions, and drive the business forward.
(iv) Flexibility: Small businesses can quickly adapt to changes in the market, customer needs, or industry trends, allowing them to stay competitive.
(v) Personalized Customer Service: Small-scale businesses often prioritize building strong relationships with customers, providing personalized service, and tailoring solutions to meet their needs.
(vi) Limited Market Share: Due to their size and scope, small-scale businesses typically have a smaller market share compared to larger corporations.
(vii) Simple Organizational Structure: Small businesses usually have a flat organizational structure, with fewer layers of management and decision-making, which can facilitate faster decision-making.
(viii) Entrepreneurial Spirit: Small-scale businesses are often driven by the entrepreneurial spirit of their owners, who take calculated risks, innovate, and strive to achieve success.
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*2025 WAEC ANIMAL HUSBANDARY PRACTICAL*
(1) Great care should be taken to ensure that the information given overleaf does not reach the candidates either directly or indirectly before the examination.
After consultation, this document should be kept under the lock and key until the day of the examination.
(2) (a) The provision of specimens, materials and equipment for the test is your responsibility.
(b) (i) Where a specimen is not readily available in sufficient quantity, it should be shared among small groups of candidates.
(ii) Each candidate should be provided with the following specimens labelled accordingly:
A: Wood shavings.
B: Beef.
C: Leather.
D: Crops with its content (Poultry).
E: Fresh liver (From ruminant).
F: Hoof.
G: Weighing scale.
H: Egg candler.
J: Thermometer.
K: Hypodermic syringe.
L: Cheese.
M: Milk(labelled).
N: Horn.
P: Fresh Leucaena leucocephala.
(3) Report forms are provided separately on which you are requested to:
(a) supply details of these specimens are materials provided.
(b) report on any particular difficulties experienced by any candidate especially if the examiner would be unable to discover these from the scripts.
(c) make and record experimental observations.
You must enclose a completed report form in each envelope of scripts.
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(1) Great care should be taken to ensure that the information given overleaf does not reach the candidates either directly or indirectly before the examination.
After consultation, this document should be kept under the lock and key until the day of the examination.
(2) (a) The provision of specimens, materials and equipment for the test is your responsibility.
(b) (i) Where a specimen is not readily available in sufficient quantity, it should be shared among small groups of candidates.
(ii) Each candidate should be provided with the following specimens labelled accordingly:
A: Wood shavings.
B: Beef.
C: Leather.
D: Crops with its content (Poultry).
E: Fresh liver (From ruminant).
F: Hoof.
G: Weighing scale.
H: Egg candler.
J: Thermometer.
K: Hypodermic syringe.
L: Cheese.
M: Milk(labelled).
N: Horn.
P: Fresh Leucaena leucocephala.
(3) Report forms are provided separately on which you are requested to:
(a) supply details of these specimens are materials provided.
(b) report on any particular difficulties experienced by any candidate especially if the examiner would be unable to discover these from the scripts.
(c) make and record experimental observations.
You must enclose a completed report form in each envelope of scripts.
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WAEC 2025 MIDNIGHT QUESTION AND ANSWER PAYMENTS!!!.
ALL SUBJECTS(COURSES)+PRACTICAL : ₦16,500
ALL SCIENCE SUBJECTS : ₦8,000
ALL ART SUBJECTS : ₦7,000
ALL COMMERCIAL SUBJECTS : ₦ 7,000
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ALL SUBJECTS(COURSES)+PRACTICAL : ₦16,500
ALL SCIENCE SUBJECTS : ₦8,000
ALL ART SUBJECTS : ₦7,000
ALL COMMERCIAL SUBJECTS : ₦ 7,000
PAY INTO THE ACCOUNT BELOW
ACCOUNT NO:9056863938
ACCOUNT NAME: BLESSING
BANK: PALM PAY / OPAY BANK
Pls drop payment proves after payment done
WHATSAPP EXAMKEY 09056863938 ONLY FOR YOUR PAYMENT!!!.
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP👇
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
http://wa.me/+2349056863938.