♦️59. The view expressed by the writer in the last paragraph is that
A more people appear to take to drinking and smoking
B the number of alcoholics and smokers is certainly increasing
C sales of alcohol and tobacco products have improved tremendously
D more people now abstain from drinking and smoking

♦️60. The positions maintained by the moralist and the economist can be described as being
A very passionate
B quite indifferent
C at variance
D very agreeable

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In its weekly bulletin, the Board noted that the registration figure was achieved over a span of 26 days, with just six days remaining before the registration deadline of 8 March 2025.

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JAMB 2025 GOVERNMENT QUESTIONS

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Question 1
When did Nigeria gain her Independence?
A. 1st October, 1963
B. 31st October, 1690
C. 1st October, 2012
D. 1st October, 1960
E. 12th October, 1992

Question 2
Democracy means a system of government in which
A. the majority rules
B. the minority rules
C. there is no party system
D. the people rule
E. none of the above
Question 3
A constitution is federal if

A. it provides for a presidential system
B. it is unwritten
C. it is not unitary
D. the central and component units or authorities are co-ordinate and equal
E. there is a division of powers between a central and a number of other component authorities

Question 4
The Executive is
A. a committee of the legislature
B. the body that makes laws
C. the body that executes the policies of government
D. the highest organ of government
E. none of the above

Question 5
The Judiciary is
A. an arm of the Executive
B. the body which makes the law
C. a body of lawyers
D. the body which interprets the law
E. the body which enforces the law
Question 6
The separation of powers means the same as

A. a presidential system of government
B. checks and balances
C. the rule of law
D. supremacy of the judiciary
E. none of the above

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Question 7
Rights are

A. claims which the law allows
B. claims against the state
C. claims against other individuals
D. claims which are natural to men
E. what are written in the constitution

Question 8
Pressure groups are
A. Organisation which want to overthrow the government
B. organisations which seek to influence the policies of the government
C. associations of people who share the same ideology
D. political parties
E. religious orders

Question 9
A cabinet system of government is practised in
A. the USSR
B. the USA
C. the People's Republic of China
D. the United Kingdom
E. North Korea

Question 10
The citizen's obligations are
A. what the government orders
B. duties the individual imposes on himself
C. what the law requires of the individual
D. what the military decrees
E. what political parties demand of their members
Question 11
An electoral system is the system which governs
A. the appointment of the Pope elections
B. how people vote
C. the conduct of elections
D. the appointment of cabinet ministers
E. the appointment of judges

Question 12
An unwritten constitution is one which

A. is not subject to judicial review
B. is only partially written
C. is not written at all
D. is made up solely of a set of conventions
E. none of the above

Question 13
Delegated legislation is legislation
A. which is not submitted to parliament
B. made by judicial tribunals
C. made by a minister acting an Act of Parliament
D. made by local government
E. made by parastatals

Question 14
Before colonial rule, Yoruba traditional rulers were appointed by
A. the people acting through their representatives
B. the Ogboni
C. Ifa (oracle)priests
D. Odudwa
E. Kingmakers

Question 15
The first political party properly so-called was formed in Nigeria in

A. 1916
B. 1923
C. 1944
D. 1948
E. 1951
Question 16
The Lol Cadres, a major factor in the constitutional development of the French colonial territories, was introduced in
A. 1940
B. 1946
C. 1950
D. 1956
E. 1960

Question 17
The Coussey Commission Report laid the ground-work for the eventual independence of
A. Gambia
B. Gold Coast (Ghana)
C. Sierra Leone
D. Liberia
E. Nigeria

Question 18
The (former ) Western Region of Nigeria became internally self-governing in
A. 1955
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1956
E. 1959

Question 19
The first Pan African, conference was held in
A. Paris
B. Brussels
C. London
D. New York
E. Manchester

Question 20
The Public Service Commission (Nigeria) is responsible for the appointment of all,

A. judges of the High Court
B. officials of public corporations
C. civil servants
D. military personnel
E. university teachers
Question 21
Constitutional cases in Nigeria can only be raised in the first instance in
A. the Supreme Court
B. the High Courts
C. the Courts of Appeal
D. the Sharia Court of Appeal
E. none of the above

Question 22
Which of the following would act for the Head of state when he is out of the country?
A. the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B. the Chief of Staff, Army
C. the Chief of staff, supreme Military Head Quarters
D. the Chief of Staff, Air Force
E. the General Officer Commanding, First Division

Question 23
To raise funds, local governments can levy

A. import duties
B. income taxes
C. Excise duties
D. rates
E. profits tax

Question 24
The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of
A. the OAU
B. the Commonwealth
C. the United Nations
D. the OCAM
E. the African Development Bank

Question 25
Nigeria is not a member of
A. the OAU
B. the Security Council of the UN
C. the African Development Bank
D. the Commonwealth
E. the OCAM
Question 26
The primary political parties is to
A. oppose the government
B. Aggregate interest
C. mobilise public opinion
D. provide welfare for their member
E. provide support for the military

Question 27
Th OAU was formed in
A. 1946
B. 1956
C. 1960
D. 1963
E. 1965

Question 28
All members of the newly constituted local government councils in Nigeria were
A. Directly elected
B. indirectly elected
C. appointed by the State Governors
D. appointed by the Head of State
E. none of the above

Question 29
Which of the following is true as a major function of elections?
A. Elections serve the purpose of recruitment of the leaders to office in a modern state
B. the elections give the people a chance to eliminate opponents who are in office
C. they are means of testing the popularity of politicians of politicians
D. politicians use elections as tools to deceive the populace
E. Elections are a means by which politicians keep themeselves in power

Question 30
The first Governor General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard
B. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
C. Sir James Robertson
D. the late Major Genery Aguiyi Irosi
E. the Oni of ife
Question 31
The first Governor General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard
B. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
C. Sir James Robertson
D. the late Major Genery Aguiyi Irosi
E. the Oni of ife

Question 32
The supreme policy-making organ in the Organization of African Unity is
A. the Council of ministers
B. the Assembly of Head of State and government
C. the general secretariat
D. the specialised commissions
E. none of the above

Question 33
In which of these organs of the United Nations Organization is veto power exercised by some countries
A. the world health organisation
B. the security council
C. the general assembly
D. the UN committee against apartheid
E. the international court of justice

Question 34
In a federal system such as Nigeria the local governments are directly responsible

A. to the federal or central government
B. to the state government
C. to no other level of government
D. to the federal and state governments
E. to any level of government which can provide money for its programmes

Question 35
The 1946 constitutions in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana were the results of
A. pressures from nationalists within the colonies
B. pressures by united states of America
C. pressures from the British government
D. pressures from within and from outside these colonies
E. none of the above
Question 36
If the rights of the individual are violated or threatened, where can he go for redress?
A. the Executive branch of government
B. the Legislative branch of government
C. the Local government council
D. the Judicial branch of government
E. the Ministry for internal of Home Affairs

Question 37
In the Presidential system of government the president is elected to office by
A. the cabinet
B. the parliament or legislature
C. the military
D. the people through direct elections
E. the political party

Question 38
The military take over power from politicians in West African countries
A. when poltician have become corrupt and are reckless in their use of power
B. when there is a breakdom of law and order in the country
C. for reasons which touch on the interest of the military
D. because of the personal ambitions of some politicians
E. all of the above
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Question 39
By establishing public corporations governments are trying to
A. eliminate private enterprises
B. compete with private enterprise
C. render crucial services to the public in areas which the civll service cannot effectively handle
D. make quick profit at the expense of the people
E. B and D

Question 40
The constitution of any given country must provide for
A. the ditribution of powers
B. the rights and duties of the individual
C. the rule of law
D. none of the above
E. A, B and C
Question 41
In a modern state, pressure Groups find that the most effective way of achieving their purposes is by
A. causing trouble among he populace
B. influencing decisions of government
C. forming political parties
D. rigging elections to offices of the state
E. A and C

Question 42
Which of the following would you consider the most famous among the leaders of nationalist movement in Nigeria?
A. Kwame Nkurumah
B. General Olusegun Obasanjo
C. Herbert Macaulay
D. Anthony Enahoro
E. Dauda Adegbenro

Question 43
The idea of collective responsibility in the Executive branch of government means that
A. no single member of the executive can take any responsible decision
B. a member of the executive has no way out of decisions made in that body
C. a member executive cannot publicly criticise decisions collectively made without first resigning
D. responibility within the executive is not unilateral
E. parliament must ratify executive decision collectively reached

Question 44
Indirect Rule as practised by the British in their West African colonies
A. did not attempt to reform existing traditional institutions
B. was over glorified and expedient nonsense
C. satisfied neither the rulers nor the ruled
D. had nothing in common with the reality of french rule in their colonies
E. meant ruling through existing rulers and attempting to check excesses

Question 45
The French idea of assimilation as applied in their colonies
A. was to make Frenchment out of African subjects
B. would have been allowed to produce more Frenchmen in the colonies than in traditional African
C. recognised real value in traditional African culture and was merely aimed at upgrading it
D. produced nothing but African puppets in the colonies
E. was abandoned within a couple of years of its operation
Question 46
The most remarkable thing about post-independence political development in the Gambia is
A. that the country has been swallowed up by the much bigger country of Senegal
B. the relatively untarnished reputation of sir Dauda Jawara
C. that without reliance on overwhelming force, the government has remained in power and tolerated opposition
D. the uniquely robust economy which the government has succeeded in establishing for the country and distributed fairly among its people
E. the existence of opposition parties

Question 47
The dominant idea behind the establishment of the organization of African Unity is
A. that Africa must unite
B. to show the world that Africa can also do what Latin American and Asian countries have done
C. to provide a framework and opportunities for-co-operation on common Africa problems
D. to promote economic development of Africa
E. to have its Secretary-General co-ordinate the foreign policies of member states

Question 48
The new local government reforms in Nigeria
A. seek to establish uniformity in type, purpose and functions local authorities
B. make traditional rulers more powerful than ever before
C. are a waste of time and the federal government's money
D. promote unity but allow for some diverity in the structure of local governments
E. would definitely establish clean and efficient governments at the local level

Question 49
The principle of universal adult suffrage refers to
A. the right of all adult people to vote
B. the structure of political parties
C. the legal nature of a constitution
D. the right to free speech
E. all of the above
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Question 50
A constituency
A. is the same as a legislature
B. is part of the campaign process
C. is an area or district in which the inhabitants can send a representative to parliament
D. is an important part of every monarchy
E. consists of party executives and freewheelers
Question 51
The treaty establishing the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was
A. concluded in Lome (Togo) in December, 1976 after hard and extensive negotiations
B. designed as the main pillar on which an eventual African common market would be built
C. the brain-child of Togo and Ghana
D. signed in Lagos in May 1975 to promote trade and other economic co-operation in the region as a whole
E. to immediately eliminate tariffs and other barriers to trade among members

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JAMB UPDATES 🔥

JAMB 2025 REGISTRATION ENDS TODAY,MARCH 8TH–DESPERATE CANDIDATES BEG FOR E-PIN PORTAL REOPENING.

OYO STATE MOCK EXAM TIMETABLE

[JAMB 2025 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS]

1. Reading the verdict of a case by a magistrate is an example of
A. A reflex action
B. An instinct
C. A conditioned reflex
D. A voluntary action✔️

2. An association between the root nodule of a leguminous plant and rhizobium sp, is known as
A. commmensalism
B. mycorrhiza✔️
C. parastism
D. symbiosis

3. Water fleas, wood lice and barnacles belong to the group?
A. arachnida
B. crustacea✔️
C. insecta
D. chilopoda

4. The veins of the leaf are formed by the
A. vascular bundles✔️
B. cambium cells
C. palisade tissue
D. spongy

5. Which of the following does a virus have in common with animal cells?
A. Nucleus
B. DNA✔️
C. Gycogen
D. Cytoplasm

6. One common characteristic of fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they
A. show alternation of generations
B. reproduce sexually by conjugation
C. produce spores that are dispersed✔️
D. possess chlorophyll in their tissues

7. The term caryopsis is used to describe a fruit in which the
A. testa and pericarp are separate
B. seed and endocarp are fused
C. testa and pericarp are fused✔️
D. seed coat and fruit wall are impermeable

8. A major limitation in the use of the potometer for measuring the rate of transpiration is that
A. it is made of breakable glass materials
B. it measures the rate of water intake
C. it measure the rate of water loss throuh the stern only
D. the movement of the air buble in the potometer cannot be timed accurately✔️

9. Which of the following correctly summarizes the life cycle of fern plant?
A. Spore → prothallus → thallus → sporangium
B. Male and female gamentangia → zygospores → sporangium → spores
C. Spore → thallus → spermatozoa + ovum → sporangium
D. Prothallus → spermatozoid → +egg cell → leafy plant → sporangium → spore✔️

10. The essential structural difference between hydra and tapeworm is that while Hydra
A. has tentacles, tapeworm is parasitic
B. is diploblastic, tapeworm is triplobastic✔️
C. has a mouth, tapeworm feeds by suckers
D. has mesoderm, tapeworm has mesogloea

11. Pawpaw seeds collected from a tree with many desirable agronomic qualities did not give rise to plants of desirable character as the parent because
A. seeds are not reliable for propagating plants
B. uncontrolled out-crossing can introduced unwanted variability✔️
C. vegetative propagation is best form of reproduction of all crop
D. seeds were not physiologically mature at the harvest

12. The group of Arthropods that has no antennae is the
A. Crustacea
B. Chilopoda
C. Arachnida✔️
D. Diplopoda

13. Mammals acclimatize to reduced oxygen content at high altitudes by
A. the stimulation of marrow to reduce the amount of erythrocytes produced✔️
B. increasing the rate at which erythrocytes are destroyed
C. the stimulation of marrow to produce more erythrocytes
D. increasing the breakdown of the protein portion of the erythrocytes

14.Which of the following characterizes the white mangrove?
A. Prop roots
B. Buttress roots
C. Breathing roots✔️
D. Stilt roots

15. The habitat of the cysticercus of taenia solium is
A. Alimentary canal of cattle
B. Muscles of pig✔️
C. Alimentary canal of pig
D. Muscles of cattle

16. In Nigeria, the guinea savanna belt borders the
A. mangrove swamps and the sahel savanna
B. rainforests and the sudan savanna✔️
C. desert and the sudan savanna
D. rainforests and the deserts

17. Secondary succession is much faster than primary succession because
A. pioneer colonizers are more in number
B. soil is already present✔️
C. secondary seres require less nutrients
D. species competition is increased

18. In Mucor or Rhizopus carbohydrate is absorbed in the form of
A. starch✔️
B. sucrose
C. glycogen
D. arabinose

19. Which one of the following option is not true for mucor of Rhizophus? it
A. Grows on moist dead organic matter
B. Is a plant
C. Has cellulose cell-wall✔️
D. Reproduce asexually by producing a spore
E. Has no chlorophyll

20. The theory of use and disuse of organs was promulgated by
A. Alfred Wallace
B. Charles Darwin
C. Jean Lamarck✔️
D. Robert Hook

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21. The adaptive importance of the nuptial flight from termite colonies is to
A. ensure cross-breeding between members of one colony and another
B. disperse the reproductives in order to establish new colonies✔️
C. provide abundant food for birds and other animals during the early rains
D. expel the reproductives so as to provide enough food for other members

22. What is the primary function of cofactors?
A. To aid in enzyme function✔️
B. To synthesize enzymes
C. To inhibit enzymes
D. To break down old enzymes

23. Size, colour and fingerprints are examples of __
A. physiological variation
B. discontinuous variation
C. morphological variation✔️
D. adaptive variation

24. Which of these organisms partly digest its food extracellularly?
A. Butterfly
B. Cockroach
C. Spider✔️
D. Mosquito

25. The artery supplying the liver with blood is called
A. hepatic✔️
B. mesenteric
C. renal
D. subclavian.

26.The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remains constant from generation to generation is called
A. fusion
B. meiosis✔️
C. mitosis
D. oogenesis

27. The streaming movement of cytoplasm observed in a freshly cut leaf of a water plant is termed
A. amoeboids
B. centrifugal motion
C. ciliary motion
D. cyclosis✔️

28. Lianas is to tropical rain forest as an extensive root system is to ---------------- habitat
A. afro-alpine
B. estuarine
C. fresh - water
D. grass-land✔️

29.Which of the following functions of the body are nephrons associated with?
A. Circulation
B. Digestion
C. Excretion✔️
D. Reproduction

30. The network of blood capillaries in the kidney capsule is referred to as
A. capsule
B. glomerulus✔️
C. pelvis
D. pyramid

31. Petals join together to form a tube known as
A. epigynous
B. gamopetalous✔️
C. hypogynous
D. polysepalous

32.The following are involved in reflex action EXCEPT
A. brain cells✔️
B. intermediate neuron
C. motor neuron
D. sensory neuron

33. Which of the following is NOT an evidence of organic evolution?
A. Comparative anatomy
B. Embryology
C. Homologous features
D. Spontaneous generation.✔️

34. In terms of evolutionary trend, which of these invertebrates evolved first?
A. Arthropoda
B. Coelentrata
C. Platyhelminthes
D. Protozoa✔️

35. An ovary with ovules arranged along its walls is said to have ------------ placentation.
A. axile
B. Marginal ✔️
C. free central
D. parietal

36. The mouth part of a mosquito through which it sucks the blood of its victim is called
A. hypopharynx
B. mandible
C. Stylet✔️
D. labium

37. Autecology is defined as the study of Interrelationship of
A. many species of organisms and their environment
B. same species of organisms and their environment✔️
C. organisms in the atmosphere
D. organisms under the earth’s surface

38. The process by which some organisms oxidize inorganic compounds to obtain energy is known as
A. catabolism
B. chemosynthesis
C. glycolysis
D. photosynthesis✔️

39. An inflorescence is a
A. group of flowers borne on the same stalk
B. group of flowers born on different stalks✔️
C. flower pollinated by wind
D. plants which have both male and female reproductive organs

40. The growth of a coleoptile towards unilateral light source is due to
A. rapid rate of photosynthesis
B. unequal distribution of auxin✔️
C. the effect of geotropism
D. the effect of photolysis

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✅ C. R. S

1. The caravan of Ishmaelites that bought Joseph traded in
A. balm, gum and myrrh✅
B. oil, balm and gum
C. myrrh, maize and wheat
D. gum, frankincense and oil

2. Before Joseph came to pharaoh after his release from prison, Joseph
A. ate some food
B. prayed fervently
C. shaved and ate
D. shaved and changed his clothes✅

3. How long was the famine before Joseph reconciled with his brother?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years✅
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

4. Which of the following was not an excuse Moses gave when he was called to deliver the Israelites?
A. The Israelites would not believe him
B. He was slow to speak✅
C. he was a murderer
D. He doubted his own ability

5. Regardless of the Egyptians' suffering, Pharaoh refused to let the Israelites go because
A. the Israelites gave them cheap labour✅
B. Pharaoh wanted to challenge god
C. god allowed the Israelites to suffer
D. the Israelites refused to pray to God

6. As soon as the Egyptians caught up with the Israelites at the Red sea, the pillar of clouds
A. vanished from the sight of the Israelites
B. stood on the left side of the Israelites
C. stood between the Israelites and the Egyptians✅
D. moved ahead of the Israelites

7. The sin of the Israelites that led to the punishment by fiery serpents was
A. making the golden calf
B. speaking against God and Moses✅
C. planning to return to Egypt
D. trying to stone Caleb and Joshua.

8. In Jotham's parable of the trees, Abimelech is very much likened to the
A. fig
B. bramble✅
C. olive
D. vine

9. Go into the hills, lest the pursuers meet you; and hide yourselves three days, until the pursuers have returned; then afterwards you may go your way' Who gave this advice?
A. Deborah
B. Rebekah
C. Rahab.✅
D. Sihon.

10. During the confirmation of the covenant, Moses was invited by the Lord along with
A. Aaron, Nadab and Abihu✅
B. Aaron, Eleazar and Nadab
C. Abihu, Eleazar and Nadab
D. Eleazar, Aaron and Abihu

11. After me comes he who is mightier than I, the thong of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie who said this?
A. Jesus Christ
B. Mary Magdalene
C. Mark
D. John the Baptist✅

12. When Paul came to Rome, the first set of people to Whom he preached were the
A. Romans
B. Jews✅
C. Greeks
D. Samaritans

13. Who addressed Jesus at Jericho saying "Jesus, son of David, have mercy on me'?
A. Bartimaeus the blind beggar✅
B. Simon the leper
C. Simon of Cyrene
D. James the son of Zebedee

14. By whom did the Lord heal the blindness of Paul?
A. Ananias✅
B. Cephas
C. John Mark
D. Silas

15. The Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you, therefore the child, to be born will be called holy, the son of God' This was said by the angel Gabriel to
A. Elizabeth
B. Zechariah
C. Mary✅
D. Joseph

16. What did the Apostles do when complaints were made to them that some sections of the new Christian community were not being supplied with their needs for sustenance? They
A. gave out more money for buying food
B. said that they had neither gold nor silver
C. appointed seven deacons to undertake the care of the new Christians✅
D. appointed the Apostles James, Peter and John to oversee the supply of provisions to the new Christians

17. Blessed are you among women and blessed is the fruit of your womb'. This was said by
A. the angel Gabriel
B. Simon
C. Anna
D. Elizabeth✅

18. Therefore in the resurrection, whose wife shall of the seven for they all had her'? This question was put to Jesus by the
A. Pharisees
B. Scribes
C. Chief Priests
D. Sadducees✅

19. To whom was this addressed? 'Rule over us, you and your son and your grandson also; for you have delivered us out of the hand of Midian
A. Deborah
B. Samson
C. Gideon✅
D. Jephthah

20. Who asked this question? Which is better for you that all seventy of the sons of Jerubbaal ruler over you, or that one rule over you?"
A. Abimelech✅
B. Ahimelech
C. Jothan
D. Elimetech

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21. Cursed be the man who takes food before evening, before I am able to avenge myself on my enemies This was said by Saul during the battle between Israel and the
A. Ammonites
B. Jebusites
C. Amalekites
D. Philistines✅

22. At childhood, the word of the Lord came to Samuel because he
A. was righteous
B. had the qualities of a prophet
C. was to announce the punishment for the house of Eli✅
D. slept near the altar

23. Who was the man who in an attempt to prevent a disaster, touched the Ark and died when David was returning it to Jerusalem?
A. Obed-edom
B. Abinadab
C. Uzzah✅
D. Ahio

24. It was wrong for King Solomon to have married foreign women because
A. they would entice him to worship idols✅
B. the women of Israel were more beautiful
C. they were very jealous
D. a king should not have too many children

25. The suggestion made by Prophet Nathan to Bathsheba to foil Adonijah's attempt to usurp the throne of David was to
A. have Adonijah banished
B. remind David of his promise that Solomon would succeed him✅
C. have Solomon secretly anointed by Zadok
D. plead with Adonijah to abandon the attempt

26. The jar of meal shall not be spent and the cruse of oil shall not fail, until the day that the Lord sends rain upon the earth. From the context, which of these statements is UNTRUE?
A. The meal in the jar and the oil in the cruse were continually replenished thereafter
B. The widow of Zarephath prepared food for Elijah
C. The widow and her son ate the food and waited for their death✅
D. The woman was gathering sticks to prepare her last meal

27. How many months were the Israelites on forced labour in Lebanon allowed to spend at home for every month at the labour camp?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four✅
D. Five

28. Which of the following kings said, 'Behold your gods, O Israel, who brought you up out of the land of Egypt?
A. Rehoboam
B. Ahab
C. Jeroboam✅
D. Zedekiah

29. Which of these kings did not assassinate his predecessor but was assassinated by his successor?
A. Shallum
B. Pekah
C. Hoshea✅
D. Pekahiah

30. To whom does this refer? He burned his son as an offering, practiced soothsaying and augury, and dealt with mediums and with wizards. He did much evil in the sight of the Lord, provoking him to anger
A. Hezekiah
B. Manasseh✅
C. Josiah
D. Jehoiakim

31. Hosea said that the children of Israel shall dwell many days without king or prince, without sacrifice or pillar, without.…
A. ephod or teraphim✅
B. prophet or seer
C. dream or vision
D. Tummim or Urin

32. Then the spirit of the Lord will come mightily upon you, and you shall prophesy with them 'The above was addressed to
A. Samuel
B. Saul✅
C. David
D. Jonathan

33. The evil spirit that tormented Saul left him whenever he
A. was asleep
B. was at prayer
C. drank wine
D. heard David's music✅

34. Saul was made king publicly before the Lord and all the people of Israel at
A. Mizpah✅
B. Gilgal
C. Bethel
D. Dan

35. When the Queen of Sheba heard of Solomon's fame concerning the name of the Lord, she came to test him with her
A. questions✅
B. beauty
C. army
D. wealth

36. The greatest of David's domestic problems that seemed to break his heart was the
A. rape of Tamar by Amnon
B. killing of Amnon by Absalom
C. conspiracy of Absalom against him✅
D. murder of Absalom by Joab

37. Besides the gifts of wisdom, what other gift did the Lord promise to Solomon but with a condition?
A. Riches
B. Honour
C. Long life✅
D. Victory in warfare

38. When Joseph discovered that his betrothed, Mary, was with child, he decided to divorce her quietly because
A. Mary was too tender and lovely
B. the angel warned Joseph not to be harsh on Mary
C. Joseph was disappointed with Mary
D. he was a just man✅

39. Though Herod wanted to put John the Baptist to death, he feared the people, because they held him to be a
A. priest
B. preacher
C. prophet✅
D. fore- runner of Christ

40. Which of these is NOT included in the instructions given to the disciples during their mission?
A. Heal the sick
B. Judge the people✅
C. Cleanse lepers
D. Raise the dead

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[ JAMB MATHEMATICS 2025 QUESTIONS ] :

1. Solve for y in the following equation given in base two: 11(y + 101) = 1000y
A. 10
B. 11✅
C. 110
D. 111

2. Simplify : 3½ ÷ 2⅓ - ¾
A. ¾✅
B. 1½
C. 2 ⁴/19
D. 5 ¹/12

3. After getting a pay of 20%, a man's new annual salary is N21, 600. His salary before the pay rise was
A. N18 000✅
B. N17 700
C. N17 280
D. N17 680

4. If log 7.5 = 0.8751, evaluate 2 log 75 + log 750
A. 6.6252
B. 6.6253✅
C. 66.252
D. 66.253

5. Solve for n: 4ⁿ-¹ × 5²ⁿ-² × 10ⁿ = 1
A. ⅔✅
B. ¾
C. 1
D. 5/4

6. If X = {1, 2, 3, 4} and Y = {3, 5, 6}, the elements of (X n Y) U X are
A. { 1, 2, 3 ,4}✅
B. {3, 5, 6 }
C. {3}
D. {1, 2, 4}

7. If R is the set of positive integers and P = {x : x € R, x² < 10 and x ≠ 0 }, then
A. P = { 0, 1}
B. P = { 0, 1, 2, 3}
C. P = { 1, 2, 3}✅
D. P is an infinite set

8. M varies inversely as N² and N varies directly as p². If k is a constant, the relationship between M and p can be expressed as
A. P⁴M = k✅
B. P²M = k
C. M = kP³
D. M = kP⁴

9. Determine the maximum value of y = 3x² - x³
A. 6
B. 4✅
C. 2
D. 0

10. Evaluate (xy² - yz²)(x²z - xyz) when x = 2, y = -2 and z = -½
A. -34✅
B. -30
C. -28
D. 0

11. Factorize: 9 - (a² - 3a - 1)²
A. (a - 4)(a - 2)(a + 1)
B. –(a – 4)(a + 1)(a – 2)✅
C – (a – 2)(a + 1)(a +2)(a + 4)
D. (a – 4)(a – 3)(a – 2)(a + 1)

12. What must be added to 4z² - 4 to make it a perfect square?
A. – 1/z²
B. 1/z²✅
C. 1
D. 1/z

13. If the equation y² + 3y + k = 0 has equal roots, the value of k is
A. 9/16
B. 9/8
C. 9/4✅
D. 9/2

14. Factorize : k² - 2kp + p²
A. (k + p)²
B. (k - p)²✅
C. k² + p²
D. k² - p²

15. The difference between the length and the width of a rectangle is 5cm . I'd the perimeter of the rectangle is 34 cm, the length is
A. 17 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 11 cm✅
D. 9 cm

16. If 4p + 3q = 5 and 3p + 5q = 4, the value of 11(p + q) is
A. -12
B. 14✅
C. 12
D. 11

17. A straight line y = ax intersects the parabola y = x² - 5x + 6 at points P(1, 2) and Q(m, n). The values of m and n are :
A. (3, 6)
B. (-2, -4)
C. (6, 12)✅
D. (-1 , -2)

18. If x/y = 3/5 , then (x - 3)/(y -5) is
A. ⅖
B. ⅗✅
C. 5/3
D. 0

19. Differentiate y = 3 cos 2x – sin 4x
A. - 6 sin 2x + 4 cos 4x
B. 6 sin 2x + 4 cos 4x
C. - 6 sin 2x - 4 cos 4x✅
D. 6 sin 2x - 4 cos 4x

20. For the function y = x cos x, d²y/dx² is equal to
A. x cos x + 2 sin x
B. x cos x – 2 since
C. Cos x - x sin x
D. – x cos x – 2 sin x✅

21. The integral values of y which satisfy the inequality :
–1 < 5 – 2y ≤ 7 are
A. –1, 0, 1 , 2✅
B. 0, 1 , 2, 3
C. –1, 0,1, 2, 3
D. –1, 0, 2, 3

22. The 1st and 4th terms of a G. p are –3 and 24 respectively. The sum of the first four terms is
A. 15✅
B. –15
C. 45
D. –45

23. Find the sum to infinity of the series :

1 + 7/10 + (7/10)² + (7/10)³ + ...

A. 2 ⁷/10
B. 3⅓✅
C. 5
D. 7

24. Which of the following statements is *false* ?
A. If two triangles are congruent, then they are also similar
B. If two triangles are similar, then they are also congruent✅
C. An equiangular triangle is also equilateral
D. An equilateral triangle is also equiangular

25. Solve ( x – 3)(x + 2) < 0
A. 2 < x < 3
B. –3 < x < –2
C. –2 < x < 3✅
D. –3 < x < 2

26. A regular polygon with (2m + 1 ) sides has each interior angle equal to 144⁰. The value of m is
A. 4½✅
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

27. Find the value of x of which the function f(x) = 3x² - x - 6 is minimum
A. -⅙
B. -73/12
C. ⅙✅
D. 73/12

28. Two chords AC and BD of a circle intersect inside the circle at E. If BÂC = 35⁰ , CÂD = 42⁰ and ABD = 70⁰ , find ACB.
A. 33⁰✅
B. 42⁰
C. 70⁰
D. 77⁰

29. If 4 sin² ∅ – 3 = 0, the value of ∅ for 0⁰ < ∅ < 90⁰ is
A. 30⁰
B. 45⁰
C. 60⁰✅
D. 90⁰

30. The value of 2 cos 270⁰ + sin 270⁰ is
A. 1
B. 0
C. –1✅
D. –2

31. The area of a rectangular hexagon inscribed in a circle of radius 6 cm is
A. 9√3 cm²
B. 27√3 cm²
C. 54√3 cm²✅
D. 108√3 cm²

32. The operation * on a set R of real numbers is defined by x * y = 3x + 2y - 1, find 3 * –1
A. 9
B. –9
C. 6✅
D. –6

33. In how many ways can 6 subject be selected from 10 subjects for an examination?
A. 218
B. 216
C. 215
D. 210✅

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