β¦οΈ51.What does Mr. Bepo emphasize about respecting nature during the trip?
A. It is unimportant
B. It is essential for sustainability
C. It is optional
D. It is irrelevant
β¦οΈ52.How does the protagonistβs experience at the passport office compare to his expectations?
A. It exceeds his expectations
B. It meets his expectations
C. It falls short of his expectations
D. It is irrelevant to his expectations
β¦οΈ53.What role does the protagonistβs family play in his decision-making process?
A. They are supportive
B. They are critical
C. They are indifferent
D. They are confused
β¦οΈ54.How does the protagonist feel about the possibility of traveling abroad?
A. Excited
B. Anxious
C. Indifferent
D. Fearful
β¦οΈ55.How does the MD respond to the parentsβ complaints about the teacher?
A. With anger
B. With understanding
C. With indifference
D. With confused
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πͺππππππππππππ π·ππππππ|5 πΈ| 15 π΄ππππ
Attitudes towards the smoking of cigarettes and the consumption of alcohol may be used to illustrate typical African ethics. Apart from the fact that smoking has now been linked with the lung cancer disease, the African moralist has always regarded smoking as an indication of moral degradation. A number of people have accepted the moralist idea on smoking. Some have refrained from smoking and those who could influence others, such as parents and religious leaders, have also exerted their influence to prevent others from smoking. On the other hand, a good many people have remained indifferent to the moralist view and have continued to smoke. The same argument has been applied to the consumption of alcohol. The African moralist, basing his judgement on the behaviour of a few alcoholics, tends to regard the habit of taking alcohol as a sign of wretchedness. The moralist holds the view that anybody who forms the habit of consuming alcohol will never do well in life. While this may be true in respect of a few people in the society, the fear of the moralist has not been justified. However, the economist is primarily interested in the habit of smoking and the consumption of alcohol and alcohol in so far as they give satisfaction to smokers and drinkers and so generate supply of and demand for tobacco and alcohol. The economist is interested in knowing how many packets of cigarettes are consumed and to what extent an increase or fall in consumption could affect production that is, supply. Similarly, he is interested in how much beer is consumed and how the supply of beer will adjust to the demand for it. He examines the habits and the pressures which can lead to the readjustment of wants and the reallocation of resources to cover the wants.
Some moral principles associated with religion tend to lead on to economic problems. Followers of certain religions are expected not to consume pork, take alcohol or smoke tobacco. Devotees of some religious groups, on the other hand, can eat pork, while others are expected to abstain from alcohol and smoking. Strict observance of these moral rules could cripple the breweries, the cigarette factories and some businesses however, there seems to be a growing number of alcohol consumers and cigarette smokers- a development which should be of interest to the economist.
β¦οΈ56. According to the passage, the moralist ideas that
A people should accept a point of view only when they are convinced
B smoking is not good but a little alcohol may be permitted
C the smoking of cigarettes is bad and unacceptable
D it is typically African not to smoke cigarettes
β¦οΈ57. It can be concluded from the passage that morality, religion and economy are
A some what interconnected
B clearly interconnected
C certainly unrelated
D certainly different
β¦οΈ58. Everyone ignores the moralist view on drinking and smoking
B Total abstinence from drinking and smoking is a religious obligation
C people who drink or smoke surely die of cancer
D smoking and drinking may have positive effects on the economy
A. It is unimportant
B. It is essential for sustainability
C. It is optional
D. It is irrelevant
β¦οΈ52.How does the protagonistβs experience at the passport office compare to his expectations?
A. It exceeds his expectations
B. It meets his expectations
C. It falls short of his expectations
D. It is irrelevant to his expectations
β¦οΈ53.What role does the protagonistβs family play in his decision-making process?
A. They are supportive
B. They are critical
C. They are indifferent
D. They are confused
β¦οΈ54.How does the protagonist feel about the possibility of traveling abroad?
A. Excited
B. Anxious
C. Indifferent
D. Fearful
β¦οΈ55.How does the MD respond to the parentsβ complaints about the teacher?
A. With anger
B. With understanding
C. With indifference
D. With confused
~Examkey CEO 09056863938 only~
πͺππππππππππππ π·ππππππ|5 πΈ| 15 π΄ππππ
Attitudes towards the smoking of cigarettes and the consumption of alcohol may be used to illustrate typical African ethics. Apart from the fact that smoking has now been linked with the lung cancer disease, the African moralist has always regarded smoking as an indication of moral degradation. A number of people have accepted the moralist idea on smoking. Some have refrained from smoking and those who could influence others, such as parents and religious leaders, have also exerted their influence to prevent others from smoking. On the other hand, a good many people have remained indifferent to the moralist view and have continued to smoke. The same argument has been applied to the consumption of alcohol. The African moralist, basing his judgement on the behaviour of a few alcoholics, tends to regard the habit of taking alcohol as a sign of wretchedness. The moralist holds the view that anybody who forms the habit of consuming alcohol will never do well in life. While this may be true in respect of a few people in the society, the fear of the moralist has not been justified. However, the economist is primarily interested in the habit of smoking and the consumption of alcohol and alcohol in so far as they give satisfaction to smokers and drinkers and so generate supply of and demand for tobacco and alcohol. The economist is interested in knowing how many packets of cigarettes are consumed and to what extent an increase or fall in consumption could affect production that is, supply. Similarly, he is interested in how much beer is consumed and how the supply of beer will adjust to the demand for it. He examines the habits and the pressures which can lead to the readjustment of wants and the reallocation of resources to cover the wants.
Some moral principles associated with religion tend to lead on to economic problems. Followers of certain religions are expected not to consume pork, take alcohol or smoke tobacco. Devotees of some religious groups, on the other hand, can eat pork, while others are expected to abstain from alcohol and smoking. Strict observance of these moral rules could cripple the breweries, the cigarette factories and some businesses however, there seems to be a growing number of alcohol consumers and cigarette smokers- a development which should be of interest to the economist.
β¦οΈ56. According to the passage, the moralist ideas that
A people should accept a point of view only when they are convinced
B smoking is not good but a little alcohol may be permitted
C the smoking of cigarettes is bad and unacceptable
D it is typically African not to smoke cigarettes
β¦οΈ57. It can be concluded from the passage that morality, religion and economy are
A some what interconnected
B clearly interconnected
C certainly unrelated
D certainly different
β¦οΈ58. Everyone ignores the moralist view on drinking and smoking
B Total abstinence from drinking and smoking is a religious obligation
C people who drink or smoke surely die of cancer
D smoking and drinking may have positive effects on the economy
β¦οΈ59. The view expressed by the writer in the last paragraph is that
A more people appear to take to drinking and smoking
B the number of alcoholics and smokers is certainly increasing
C sales of alcohol and tobacco products have improved tremendously
D more people now abstain from drinking and smoking
β¦οΈ60. The positions maintained by the moralist and the economist can be described as being
A very passionate
B quite indifferent
C at variance
D very agreeable
*WhatsApp 09056863938 only*
A more people appear to take to drinking and smoking
B the number of alcoholics and smokers is certainly increasing
C sales of alcohol and tobacco products have improved tremendously
D more people now abstain from drinking and smoking
β¦οΈ60. The positions maintained by the moralist and the economist can be described as being
A very passionate
B quite indifferent
C at variance
D very agreeable
*WhatsApp 09056863938 only*
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Update About jamb mock π₯.
The mock reprint will begin on March 28, 2025.
To reprint the JAMB mock slip, candidates should visit the official JAMB website, enter their registration number or email, and download their slip.
The mock reprint will begin on March 28, 2025.
To reprint the JAMB mock slip, candidates should visit the official JAMB website, enter their registration number or email, and download their slip.
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The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) has announced that a total of 1,687,860 candidates have registered for the 2025 Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME).
In its weekly bulletin, the Board noted that the registration figure was achieved over a span of 26 days, with just six days remaining before the registration deadline of 8 March 2025.
The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) has announced that a total of 1,687,860 candidates have registered for the 2025 Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME).
In its weekly bulletin, the Board noted that the registration figure was achieved over a span of 26 days, with just six days remaining before the registration deadline of 8 March 2025.
UPDATE ABOUT JAMB FORM CLOSING π₯
JAMB CLOSED SELLING PINS FOR CANDIDATES 2025
ONLY PEOPLE'S WHO HAS THE PINS THAT NOT BE REGISTERED STILL HAVE PRIVILEGE TO REGISTER FOR JAMB 2025,
CLOSING BY 10TH MARCH 2025.
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JAMB CLOSED SELLING PINS FOR CANDIDATES 2025
ONLY PEOPLE'S WHO HAS THE PINS THAT NOT BE REGISTERED STILL HAVE PRIVILEGE TO REGISTER FOR JAMB 2025,
CLOSING BY 10TH MARCH 2025.
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WAEC 2025 MIDNIGHT QUESTION AND ANSWER PAYMENTS!!!.
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==========================
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======================================
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==========================
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=======================
β ALL COMMERCIAL SUBJECTS : β¦ 7,000
==============================
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JAMB 2025 GOVERNMENT QUESTIONS
EXAMKEY CEO 09056863938
Question 1
When did Nigeria gain her Independence?
A. 1st October, 1963
B. 31st October, 1690
C. 1st October, 2012
D. 1st October, 1960
E. 12th October, 1992
Question 2
Democracy means a system of government in which
A. the majority rules
B. the minority rules
C. there is no party system
D. the people rule
E. none of the above
Question 3
A constitution is federal if
A. it provides for a presidential system
B. it is unwritten
C. it is not unitary
D. the central and component units or authorities are co-ordinate and equal
E. there is a division of powers between a central and a number of other component authorities
Question 4
The Executive is
A. a committee of the legislature
B. the body that makes laws
C. the body that executes the policies of government
D. the highest organ of government
E. none of the above
Question 5
The Judiciary is
A. an arm of the Executive
B. the body which makes the law
C. a body of lawyers
D. the body which interprets the law
E. the body which enforces the law
Question 6
The separation of powers means the same as
A. a presidential system of government
B. checks and balances
C. the rule of law
D. supremacy of the judiciary
E. none of the above
09056863938
Question 7
Rights are
A. claims which the law allows
B. claims against the state
C. claims against other individuals
D. claims which are natural to men
E. what are written in the constitution
Question 8
Pressure groups are
A. Organisation which want to overthrow the government
B. organisations which seek to influence the policies of the government
C. associations of people who share the same ideology
D. political parties
E. religious orders
Question 9
A cabinet system of government is practised in
A. the USSR
B. the USA
C. the People's Republic of China
D. the United Kingdom
E. North Korea
Question 10
The citizen's obligations are
A. what the government orders
B. duties the individual imposes on himself
C. what the law requires of the individual
D. what the military decrees
E. what political parties demand of their members
Question 11
An electoral system is the system which governs
A. the appointment of the Pope elections
B. how people vote
C. the conduct of elections
D. the appointment of cabinet ministers
E. the appointment of judges
Question 12
An unwritten constitution is one which
A. is not subject to judicial review
B. is only partially written
C. is not written at all
D. is made up solely of a set of conventions
E. none of the above
Question 13
Delegated legislation is legislation
A. which is not submitted to parliament
B. made by judicial tribunals
C. made by a minister acting an Act of Parliament
D. made by local government
E. made by parastatals
Question 14
Before colonial rule, Yoruba traditional rulers were appointed by
A. the people acting through their representatives
B. the Ogboni
C. Ifa (oracle)priests
D. Odudwa
E. Kingmakers
Question 15
The first political party properly so-called was formed in Nigeria in
A. 1916
B. 1923
C. 1944
D. 1948
E. 1951
Question 16
The Lol Cadres, a major factor in the constitutional development of the French colonial territories, was introduced in
A. 1940
B. 1946
C. 1950
D. 1956
E. 1960
Question 17
The Coussey Commission Report laid the ground-work for the eventual independence of
A. Gambia
B. Gold Coast (Ghana)
C. Sierra Leone
D. Liberia
E. Nigeria
Question 18
The (former ) Western Region of Nigeria became internally self-governing in
A. 1955
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1956
E. 1959
Question 19
The first Pan African, conference was held in
A. Paris
B. Brussels
C. London
D. New York
E. Manchester
Question 20
The Public Service Commission (Nigeria) is responsible for the appointment of all,
A. judges of the High Court
B. officials of public corporations
C. civil servants
D. military personnel
E. university teachers
Question 21
Constitutional cases in Nigeria can only be raised in the first instance in
A. the Supreme Court
B. the High Courts
C. the Courts of Appeal
D. the Sharia Court of Appeal
E. none of the above
EXAMKEY CEO 09056863938
Question 1
When did Nigeria gain her Independence?
A. 1st October, 1963
B. 31st October, 1690
C. 1st October, 2012
D. 1st October, 1960
E. 12th October, 1992
Question 2
Democracy means a system of government in which
A. the majority rules
B. the minority rules
C. there is no party system
D. the people rule
E. none of the above
Question 3
A constitution is federal if
A. it provides for a presidential system
B. it is unwritten
C. it is not unitary
D. the central and component units or authorities are co-ordinate and equal
E. there is a division of powers between a central and a number of other component authorities
Question 4
The Executive is
A. a committee of the legislature
B. the body that makes laws
C. the body that executes the policies of government
D. the highest organ of government
E. none of the above
Question 5
The Judiciary is
A. an arm of the Executive
B. the body which makes the law
C. a body of lawyers
D. the body which interprets the law
E. the body which enforces the law
Question 6
The separation of powers means the same as
A. a presidential system of government
B. checks and balances
C. the rule of law
D. supremacy of the judiciary
E. none of the above
09056863938
Question 7
Rights are
A. claims which the law allows
B. claims against the state
C. claims against other individuals
D. claims which are natural to men
E. what are written in the constitution
Question 8
Pressure groups are
A. Organisation which want to overthrow the government
B. organisations which seek to influence the policies of the government
C. associations of people who share the same ideology
D. political parties
E. religious orders
Question 9
A cabinet system of government is practised in
A. the USSR
B. the USA
C. the People's Republic of China
D. the United Kingdom
E. North Korea
Question 10
The citizen's obligations are
A. what the government orders
B. duties the individual imposes on himself
C. what the law requires of the individual
D. what the military decrees
E. what political parties demand of their members
Question 11
An electoral system is the system which governs
A. the appointment of the Pope elections
B. how people vote
C. the conduct of elections
D. the appointment of cabinet ministers
E. the appointment of judges
Question 12
An unwritten constitution is one which
A. is not subject to judicial review
B. is only partially written
C. is not written at all
D. is made up solely of a set of conventions
E. none of the above
Question 13
Delegated legislation is legislation
A. which is not submitted to parliament
B. made by judicial tribunals
C. made by a minister acting an Act of Parliament
D. made by local government
E. made by parastatals
Question 14
Before colonial rule, Yoruba traditional rulers were appointed by
A. the people acting through their representatives
B. the Ogboni
C. Ifa (oracle)priests
D. Odudwa
E. Kingmakers
Question 15
The first political party properly so-called was formed in Nigeria in
A. 1916
B. 1923
C. 1944
D. 1948
E. 1951
Question 16
The Lol Cadres, a major factor in the constitutional development of the French colonial territories, was introduced in
A. 1940
B. 1946
C. 1950
D. 1956
E. 1960
Question 17
The Coussey Commission Report laid the ground-work for the eventual independence of
A. Gambia
B. Gold Coast (Ghana)
C. Sierra Leone
D. Liberia
E. Nigeria
Question 18
The (former ) Western Region of Nigeria became internally self-governing in
A. 1955
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1956
E. 1959
Question 19
The first Pan African, conference was held in
A. Paris
B. Brussels
C. London
D. New York
E. Manchester
Question 20
The Public Service Commission (Nigeria) is responsible for the appointment of all,
A. judges of the High Court
B. officials of public corporations
C. civil servants
D. military personnel
E. university teachers
Question 21
Constitutional cases in Nigeria can only be raised in the first instance in
A. the Supreme Court
B. the High Courts
C. the Courts of Appeal
D. the Sharia Court of Appeal
E. none of the above
β€3π1
Question 22
Which of the following would act for the Head of state when he is out of the country?
A. the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B. the Chief of Staff, Army
C. the Chief of staff, supreme Military Head Quarters
D. the Chief of Staff, Air Force
E. the General Officer Commanding, First Division
Question 23
To raise funds, local governments can levy
A. import duties
B. income taxes
C. Excise duties
D. rates
E. profits tax
Question 24
The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of
A. the OAU
B. the Commonwealth
C. the United Nations
D. the OCAM
E. the African Development Bank
Question 25
Nigeria is not a member of
A. the OAU
B. the Security Council of the UN
C. the African Development Bank
D. the Commonwealth
E. the OCAM
Question 26
The primary political parties is to
A. oppose the government
B. Aggregate interest
C. mobilise public opinion
D. provide welfare for their member
E. provide support for the military
Question 27
Th OAU was formed in
A. 1946
B. 1956
C. 1960
D. 1963
E. 1965
Question 28
All members of the newly constituted local government councils in Nigeria were
A. Directly elected
B. indirectly elected
C. appointed by the State Governors
D. appointed by the Head of State
E. none of the above
Question 29
Which of the following is true as a major function of elections?
A. Elections serve the purpose of recruitment of the leaders to office in a modern state
B. the elections give the people a chance to eliminate opponents who are in office
C. they are means of testing the popularity of politicians of politicians
D. politicians use elections as tools to deceive the populace
E. Elections are a means by which politicians keep themeselves in power
Question 30
The first Governor General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard
B. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
C. Sir James Robertson
D. the late Major Genery Aguiyi Irosi
E. the Oni of ife
Question 31
The first Governor General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard
B. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
C. Sir James Robertson
D. the late Major Genery Aguiyi Irosi
E. the Oni of ife
Question 32
The supreme policy-making organ in the Organization of African Unity is
A. the Council of ministers
B. the Assembly of Head of State and government
C. the general secretariat
D. the specialised commissions
E. none of the above
Question 33
In which of these organs of the United Nations Organization is veto power exercised by some countries
A. the world health organisation
B. the security council
C. the general assembly
D. the UN committee against apartheid
E. the international court of justice
Question 34
In a federal system such as Nigeria the local governments are directly responsible
A. to the federal or central government
B. to the state government
C. to no other level of government
D. to the federal and state governments
E. to any level of government which can provide money for its programmes
Question 35
The 1946 constitutions in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana were the results of
A. pressures from nationalists within the colonies
B. pressures by united states of America
C. pressures from the British government
D. pressures from within and from outside these colonies
E. none of the above
Question 36
If the rights of the individual are violated or threatened, where can he go for redress?
A. the Executive branch of government
B. the Legislative branch of government
C. the Local government council
D. the Judicial branch of government
E. the Ministry for internal of Home Affairs
Question 37
In the Presidential system of government the president is elected to office by
A. the cabinet
B. the parliament or legislature
C. the military
D. the people through direct elections
E. the political party
Question 38
The military take over power from politicians in West African countries
A. when poltician have become corrupt and are reckless in their use of power
B. when there is a breakdom of law and order in the country
C. for reasons which touch on the interest of the military
D. because of the personal ambitions of some politicians
E. all of the above
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Which of the following would act for the Head of state when he is out of the country?
A. the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B. the Chief of Staff, Army
C. the Chief of staff, supreme Military Head Quarters
D. the Chief of Staff, Air Force
E. the General Officer Commanding, First Division
Question 23
To raise funds, local governments can levy
A. import duties
B. income taxes
C. Excise duties
D. rates
E. profits tax
Question 24
The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of
A. the OAU
B. the Commonwealth
C. the United Nations
D. the OCAM
E. the African Development Bank
Question 25
Nigeria is not a member of
A. the OAU
B. the Security Council of the UN
C. the African Development Bank
D. the Commonwealth
E. the OCAM
Question 26
The primary political parties is to
A. oppose the government
B. Aggregate interest
C. mobilise public opinion
D. provide welfare for their member
E. provide support for the military
Question 27
Th OAU was formed in
A. 1946
B. 1956
C. 1960
D. 1963
E. 1965
Question 28
All members of the newly constituted local government councils in Nigeria were
A. Directly elected
B. indirectly elected
C. appointed by the State Governors
D. appointed by the Head of State
E. none of the above
Question 29
Which of the following is true as a major function of elections?
A. Elections serve the purpose of recruitment of the leaders to office in a modern state
B. the elections give the people a chance to eliminate opponents who are in office
C. they are means of testing the popularity of politicians of politicians
D. politicians use elections as tools to deceive the populace
E. Elections are a means by which politicians keep themeselves in power
Question 30
The first Governor General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard
B. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
C. Sir James Robertson
D. the late Major Genery Aguiyi Irosi
E. the Oni of ife
Question 31
The first Governor General of Nigeria was
A. Lord Lugard
B. Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
C. Sir James Robertson
D. the late Major Genery Aguiyi Irosi
E. the Oni of ife
Question 32
The supreme policy-making organ in the Organization of African Unity is
A. the Council of ministers
B. the Assembly of Head of State and government
C. the general secretariat
D. the specialised commissions
E. none of the above
Question 33
In which of these organs of the United Nations Organization is veto power exercised by some countries
A. the world health organisation
B. the security council
C. the general assembly
D. the UN committee against apartheid
E. the international court of justice
Question 34
In a federal system such as Nigeria the local governments are directly responsible
A. to the federal or central government
B. to the state government
C. to no other level of government
D. to the federal and state governments
E. to any level of government which can provide money for its programmes
Question 35
The 1946 constitutions in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana were the results of
A. pressures from nationalists within the colonies
B. pressures by united states of America
C. pressures from the British government
D. pressures from within and from outside these colonies
E. none of the above
Question 36
If the rights of the individual are violated or threatened, where can he go for redress?
A. the Executive branch of government
B. the Legislative branch of government
C. the Local government council
D. the Judicial branch of government
E. the Ministry for internal of Home Affairs
Question 37
In the Presidential system of government the president is elected to office by
A. the cabinet
B. the parliament or legislature
C. the military
D. the people through direct elections
E. the political party
Question 38
The military take over power from politicians in West African countries
A. when poltician have become corrupt and are reckless in their use of power
B. when there is a breakdom of law and order in the country
C. for reasons which touch on the interest of the military
D. because of the personal ambitions of some politicians
E. all of the above
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Question 39
By establishing public corporations governments are trying to
A. eliminate private enterprises
B. compete with private enterprise
C. render crucial services to the public in areas which the civll service cannot effectively handle
D. make quick profit at the expense of the people
E. B and D
Question 40
The constitution of any given country must provide for
A. the ditribution of powers
B. the rights and duties of the individual
C. the rule of law
D. none of the above
E. A, B and C
Question 41
In a modern state, pressure Groups find that the most effective way of achieving their purposes is by
A. causing trouble among he populace
B. influencing decisions of government
C. forming political parties
D. rigging elections to offices of the state
E. A and C
Question 42
Which of the following would you consider the most famous among the leaders of nationalist movement in Nigeria?
A. Kwame Nkurumah
B. General Olusegun Obasanjo
C. Herbert Macaulay
D. Anthony Enahoro
E. Dauda Adegbenro
Question 43
The idea of collective responsibility in the Executive branch of government means that
A. no single member of the executive can take any responsible decision
B. a member of the executive has no way out of decisions made in that body
C. a member executive cannot publicly criticise decisions collectively made without first resigning
D. responibility within the executive is not unilateral
E. parliament must ratify executive decision collectively reached
Question 44
Indirect Rule as practised by the British in their West African colonies
A. did not attempt to reform existing traditional institutions
B. was over glorified and expedient nonsense
C. satisfied neither the rulers nor the ruled
D. had nothing in common with the reality of french rule in their colonies
E. meant ruling through existing rulers and attempting to check excesses
Question 45
The French idea of assimilation as applied in their colonies
A. was to make Frenchment out of African subjects
B. would have been allowed to produce more Frenchmen in the colonies than in traditional African
C. recognised real value in traditional African culture and was merely aimed at upgrading it
D. produced nothing but African puppets in the colonies
E. was abandoned within a couple of years of its operation
Question 46
The most remarkable thing about post-independence political development in the Gambia is
A. that the country has been swallowed up by the much bigger country of Senegal
B. the relatively untarnished reputation of sir Dauda Jawara
C. that without reliance on overwhelming force, the government has remained in power and tolerated opposition
D. the uniquely robust economy which the government has succeeded in establishing for the country and distributed fairly among its people
E. the existence of opposition parties
Question 47
The dominant idea behind the establishment of the organization of African Unity is
A. that Africa must unite
B. to show the world that Africa can also do what Latin American and Asian countries have done
C. to provide a framework and opportunities for-co-operation on common Africa problems
D. to promote economic development of Africa
E. to have its Secretary-General co-ordinate the foreign policies of member states
Question 48
The new local government reforms in Nigeria
A. seek to establish uniformity in type, purpose and functions local authorities
B. make traditional rulers more powerful than ever before
C. are a waste of time and the federal government's money
D. promote unity but allow for some diverity in the structure of local governments
E. would definitely establish clean and efficient governments at the local level
Question 49
The principle of universal adult suffrage refers to
A. the right of all adult people to vote
B. the structure of political parties
C. the legal nature of a constitution
D. the right to free speech
E. all of the above
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By establishing public corporations governments are trying to
A. eliminate private enterprises
B. compete with private enterprise
C. render crucial services to the public in areas which the civll service cannot effectively handle
D. make quick profit at the expense of the people
E. B and D
Question 40
The constitution of any given country must provide for
A. the ditribution of powers
B. the rights and duties of the individual
C. the rule of law
D. none of the above
E. A, B and C
Question 41
In a modern state, pressure Groups find that the most effective way of achieving their purposes is by
A. causing trouble among he populace
B. influencing decisions of government
C. forming political parties
D. rigging elections to offices of the state
E. A and C
Question 42
Which of the following would you consider the most famous among the leaders of nationalist movement in Nigeria?
A. Kwame Nkurumah
B. General Olusegun Obasanjo
C. Herbert Macaulay
D. Anthony Enahoro
E. Dauda Adegbenro
Question 43
The idea of collective responsibility in the Executive branch of government means that
A. no single member of the executive can take any responsible decision
B. a member of the executive has no way out of decisions made in that body
C. a member executive cannot publicly criticise decisions collectively made without first resigning
D. responibility within the executive is not unilateral
E. parliament must ratify executive decision collectively reached
Question 44
Indirect Rule as practised by the British in their West African colonies
A. did not attempt to reform existing traditional institutions
B. was over glorified and expedient nonsense
C. satisfied neither the rulers nor the ruled
D. had nothing in common with the reality of french rule in their colonies
E. meant ruling through existing rulers and attempting to check excesses
Question 45
The French idea of assimilation as applied in their colonies
A. was to make Frenchment out of African subjects
B. would have been allowed to produce more Frenchmen in the colonies than in traditional African
C. recognised real value in traditional African culture and was merely aimed at upgrading it
D. produced nothing but African puppets in the colonies
E. was abandoned within a couple of years of its operation
Question 46
The most remarkable thing about post-independence political development in the Gambia is
A. that the country has been swallowed up by the much bigger country of Senegal
B. the relatively untarnished reputation of sir Dauda Jawara
C. that without reliance on overwhelming force, the government has remained in power and tolerated opposition
D. the uniquely robust economy which the government has succeeded in establishing for the country and distributed fairly among its people
E. the existence of opposition parties
Question 47
The dominant idea behind the establishment of the organization of African Unity is
A. that Africa must unite
B. to show the world that Africa can also do what Latin American and Asian countries have done
C. to provide a framework and opportunities for-co-operation on common Africa problems
D. to promote economic development of Africa
E. to have its Secretary-General co-ordinate the foreign policies of member states
Question 48
The new local government reforms in Nigeria
A. seek to establish uniformity in type, purpose and functions local authorities
B. make traditional rulers more powerful than ever before
C. are a waste of time and the federal government's money
D. promote unity but allow for some diverity in the structure of local governments
E. would definitely establish clean and efficient governments at the local level
Question 49
The principle of universal adult suffrage refers to
A. the right of all adult people to vote
B. the structure of political parties
C. the legal nature of a constitution
D. the right to free speech
E. all of the above
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β€4π1
Question 50
A constituency
A. is the same as a legislature
B. is part of the campaign process
C. is an area or district in which the inhabitants can send a representative to parliament
D. is an important part of every monarchy
E. consists of party executives and freewheelers
Question 51
The treaty establishing the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was
A. concluded in Lome (Togo) in December, 1976 after hard and extensive negotiations
B. designed as the main pillar on which an eventual African common market would be built
C. the brain-child of Togo and Ghana
D. signed in Lagos in May 1975 to promote trade and other economic co-operation in the region as a whole
E. to immediately eliminate tariffs and other barriers to trade among members
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A constituency
A. is the same as a legislature
B. is part of the campaign process
C. is an area or district in which the inhabitants can send a representative to parliament
D. is an important part of every monarchy
E. consists of party executives and freewheelers
Question 51
The treaty establishing the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was
A. concluded in Lome (Togo) in December, 1976 after hard and extensive negotiations
B. designed as the main pillar on which an eventual African common market would be built
C. the brain-child of Togo and Ghana
D. signed in Lagos in May 1975 to promote trade and other economic co-operation in the region as a whole
E. to immediately eliminate tariffs and other barriers to trade among members
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https://t.me/ExamkeyNet
π€1
JAMB UPDATES π₯
JAMB 2025 REGISTRATION ENDS TODAY,MARCH 8THβDESPERATE CANDIDATES BEG FOR E-PIN PORTAL REOPENING.
JAMB 2025 REGISTRATION ENDS TODAY,MARCH 8THβDESPERATE CANDIDATES BEG FOR E-PIN PORTAL REOPENING.
[JAMB 2025 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS]
1. Reading the verdict of a case by a magistrate is an example of
A. A reflex action
B. An instinct
C. A conditioned reflex
D. A voluntary actionβοΈ
2. An association between the root nodule of a leguminous plant and rhizobium sp, is known as
A. commmensalism
B. mycorrhizaβοΈ
C. parastism
D. symbiosis
3. Water fleas, wood lice and barnacles belong to the group?
A. arachnida
B. crustaceaβοΈ
C. insecta
D. chilopoda
4. The veins of the leaf are formed by the
A. vascular bundlesβοΈ
B. cambium cells
C. palisade tissue
D. spongy
5. Which of the following does a virus have in common with animal cells?
A. Nucleus
B. DNAβοΈ
C. Gycogen
D. Cytoplasm
6. One common characteristic of fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they
A. show alternation of generations
B. reproduce sexually by conjugation
C. produce spores that are dispersedβοΈ
D. possess chlorophyll in their tissues
7. The term caryopsis is used to describe a fruit in which the
A. testa and pericarp are separate
B. seed and endocarp are fused
C. testa and pericarp are fusedβοΈ
D. seed coat and fruit wall are impermeable
8. A major limitation in the use of the potometer for measuring the rate of transpiration is that
A. it is made of breakable glass materials
B. it measures the rate of water intake
C. it measure the rate of water loss throuh the stern only
D. the movement of the air buble in the potometer cannot be timed accuratelyβοΈ
9. Which of the following correctly summarizes the life cycle of fern plant?
A. Spore β prothallus β thallus β sporangium
B. Male and female gamentangia β zygospores β sporangium β spores
C. Spore β thallus β spermatozoa + ovum β sporangium
D. Prothallus β spermatozoid β +egg cell β leafy plant β sporangium β sporeβοΈ
10. The essential structural difference between hydra and tapeworm is that while Hydra
A. has tentacles, tapeworm is parasitic
B. is diploblastic, tapeworm is triplobasticβοΈ
C. has a mouth, tapeworm feeds by suckers
D. has mesoderm, tapeworm has mesogloea
11. Pawpaw seeds collected from a tree with many desirable agronomic qualities did not give rise to plants of desirable character as the parent because
A. seeds are not reliable for propagating plants
B. uncontrolled out-crossing can introduced unwanted variabilityβοΈ
C. vegetative propagation is best form of reproduction of all crop
D. seeds were not physiologically mature at the harvest
12. The group of Arthropods that has no antennae is the
A. Crustacea
B. Chilopoda
C. ArachnidaβοΈ
D. Diplopoda
13. Mammals acclimatize to reduced oxygen content at high altitudes by
A. the stimulation of marrow to reduce the amount of erythrocytes producedβοΈ
B. increasing the rate at which erythrocytes are destroyed
C. the stimulation of marrow to produce more erythrocytes
D. increasing the breakdown of the protein portion of the erythrocytes
14.Which of the following characterizes the white mangrove?
A. Prop roots
B. Buttress roots
C. Breathing rootsβοΈ
D. Stilt roots
15. The habitat of the cysticercus of taenia solium is
A. Alimentary canal of cattle
B. Muscles of pigβοΈ
C. Alimentary canal of pig
D. Muscles of cattle
16. In Nigeria, the guinea savanna belt borders the
A. mangrove swamps and the sahel savanna
B. rainforests and the sudan savannaβοΈ
C. desert and the sudan savanna
D. rainforests and the deserts
17. Secondary succession is much faster than primary succession because
A. pioneer colonizers are more in number
B. soil is already presentβοΈ
C. secondary seres require less nutrients
D. species competition is increased
18. In Mucor or Rhizopus carbohydrate is absorbed in the form of
A. starchβοΈ
B. sucrose
C. glycogen
D. arabinose
19. Which one of the following option is not true for mucor of Rhizophus? it
A. Grows on moist dead organic matter
B. Is a plant
C. Has cellulose cell-wallβοΈ
D. Reproduce asexually by producing a spore
E. Has no chlorophyll
20. The theory of use and disuse of organs was promulgated by
A. Alfred Wallace
B. Charles Darwin
C. Jean LamarckβοΈ
D. Robert Hook
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1. Reading the verdict of a case by a magistrate is an example of
A. A reflex action
B. An instinct
C. A conditioned reflex
D. A voluntary actionβοΈ
2. An association between the root nodule of a leguminous plant and rhizobium sp, is known as
A. commmensalism
B. mycorrhizaβοΈ
C. parastism
D. symbiosis
3. Water fleas, wood lice and barnacles belong to the group?
A. arachnida
B. crustaceaβοΈ
C. insecta
D. chilopoda
4. The veins of the leaf are formed by the
A. vascular bundlesβοΈ
B. cambium cells
C. palisade tissue
D. spongy
5. Which of the following does a virus have in common with animal cells?
A. Nucleus
B. DNAβοΈ
C. Gycogen
D. Cytoplasm
6. One common characteristic of fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they
A. show alternation of generations
B. reproduce sexually by conjugation
C. produce spores that are dispersedβοΈ
D. possess chlorophyll in their tissues
7. The term caryopsis is used to describe a fruit in which the
A. testa and pericarp are separate
B. seed and endocarp are fused
C. testa and pericarp are fusedβοΈ
D. seed coat and fruit wall are impermeable
8. A major limitation in the use of the potometer for measuring the rate of transpiration is that
A. it is made of breakable glass materials
B. it measures the rate of water intake
C. it measure the rate of water loss throuh the stern only
D. the movement of the air buble in the potometer cannot be timed accuratelyβοΈ
9. Which of the following correctly summarizes the life cycle of fern plant?
A. Spore β prothallus β thallus β sporangium
B. Male and female gamentangia β zygospores β sporangium β spores
C. Spore β thallus β spermatozoa + ovum β sporangium
D. Prothallus β spermatozoid β +egg cell β leafy plant β sporangium β sporeβοΈ
10. The essential structural difference between hydra and tapeworm is that while Hydra
A. has tentacles, tapeworm is parasitic
B. is diploblastic, tapeworm is triplobasticβοΈ
C. has a mouth, tapeworm feeds by suckers
D. has mesoderm, tapeworm has mesogloea
11. Pawpaw seeds collected from a tree with many desirable agronomic qualities did not give rise to plants of desirable character as the parent because
A. seeds are not reliable for propagating plants
B. uncontrolled out-crossing can introduced unwanted variabilityβοΈ
C. vegetative propagation is best form of reproduction of all crop
D. seeds were not physiologically mature at the harvest
12. The group of Arthropods that has no antennae is the
A. Crustacea
B. Chilopoda
C. ArachnidaβοΈ
D. Diplopoda
13. Mammals acclimatize to reduced oxygen content at high altitudes by
A. the stimulation of marrow to reduce the amount of erythrocytes producedβοΈ
B. increasing the rate at which erythrocytes are destroyed
C. the stimulation of marrow to produce more erythrocytes
D. increasing the breakdown of the protein portion of the erythrocytes
14.Which of the following characterizes the white mangrove?
A. Prop roots
B. Buttress roots
C. Breathing rootsβοΈ
D. Stilt roots
15. The habitat of the cysticercus of taenia solium is
A. Alimentary canal of cattle
B. Muscles of pigβοΈ
C. Alimentary canal of pig
D. Muscles of cattle
16. In Nigeria, the guinea savanna belt borders the
A. mangrove swamps and the sahel savanna
B. rainforests and the sudan savannaβοΈ
C. desert and the sudan savanna
D. rainforests and the deserts
17. Secondary succession is much faster than primary succession because
A. pioneer colonizers are more in number
B. soil is already presentβοΈ
C. secondary seres require less nutrients
D. species competition is increased
18. In Mucor or Rhizopus carbohydrate is absorbed in the form of
A. starchβοΈ
B. sucrose
C. glycogen
D. arabinose
19. Which one of the following option is not true for mucor of Rhizophus? it
A. Grows on moist dead organic matter
B. Is a plant
C. Has cellulose cell-wallβοΈ
D. Reproduce asexually by producing a spore
E. Has no chlorophyll
20. The theory of use and disuse of organs was promulgated by
A. Alfred Wallace
B. Charles Darwin
C. Jean LamarckβοΈ
D. Robert Hook
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π2β€1
21. The adaptive importance of the nuptial flight from termite colonies is to
A. ensure cross-breeding between members of one colony and another
B. disperse the reproductives in order to establish new coloniesβοΈ
C. provide abundant food for birds and other animals during the early rains
D. expel the reproductives so as to provide enough food for other members
22. What is the primary function of cofactors?
A. To aid in enzyme functionβοΈ
B. To synthesize enzymes
C. To inhibit enzymes
D. To break down old enzymes
23. Size, colour and fingerprints are examples of __
A. physiological variation
B. discontinuous variation
C. morphological variationβοΈ
D. adaptive variation
24. Which of these organisms partly digest its food extracellularly?
A. Butterfly
B. Cockroach
C. SpiderβοΈ
D. Mosquito
25. The artery supplying the liver with blood is called
A. hepaticβοΈ
B. mesenteric
C. renal
D. subclavian.
26.The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remains constant from generation to generation is called
A. fusion
B. meiosisβοΈ
C. mitosis
D. oogenesis
27. The streaming movement of cytoplasm observed in a freshly cut leaf of a water plant is termed
A. amoeboids
B. centrifugal motion
C. ciliary motion
D. cyclosisβοΈ
28. Lianas is to tropical rain forest as an extensive root system is to ---------------- habitat
A. afro-alpine
B. estuarine
C. fresh - water
D. grass-landβοΈ
29.Which of the following functions of the body are nephrons associated with?
A. Circulation
B. Digestion
C. ExcretionβοΈ
D. Reproduction
30. The network of blood capillaries in the kidney capsule is referred to as
A. capsule
B. glomerulusβοΈ
C. pelvis
D. pyramid
31. Petals join together to form a tube known as
A. epigynous
B. gamopetalousβοΈ
C. hypogynous
D. polysepalous
32.The following are involved in reflex action EXCEPT
A. brain cellsβοΈ
B. intermediate neuron
C. motor neuron
D. sensory neuron
33. Which of the following is NOT an evidence of organic evolution?
A. Comparative anatomy
B. Embryology
C. Homologous features
D. Spontaneous generation.βοΈ
34. In terms of evolutionary trend, which of these invertebrates evolved first?
A. Arthropoda
B. Coelentrata
C. Platyhelminthes
D. ProtozoaβοΈ
35. An ovary with ovules arranged along its walls is said to have ------------ placentation.
A. axile
B. Marginal βοΈ
C. free central
D. parietal
36. The mouth part of a mosquito through which it sucks the blood of its victim is called
A. hypopharynx
B. mandible
C. StyletβοΈ
D. labium
37. Autecology is defined as the study of Interrelationship of
A. many species of organisms and their environment
B. same species of organisms and their environmentβοΈ
C. organisms in the atmosphere
D. organisms under the earthβs surface
38. The process by which some organisms oxidize inorganic compounds to obtain energy is known as
A. catabolism
B. chemosynthesis
C. glycolysis
D. photosynthesisβοΈ
39. An inflorescence is a
A. group of flowers borne on the same stalk
B. group of flowers born on different stalksβοΈ
C. flower pollinated by wind
D. plants which have both male and female reproductive organs
40. The growth of a coleoptile towards unilateral light source is due to
A. rapid rate of photosynthesis
B. unequal distribution of auxinβοΈ
C. the effect of geotropism
D. the effect of photolysis
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A. ensure cross-breeding between members of one colony and another
B. disperse the reproductives in order to establish new coloniesβοΈ
C. provide abundant food for birds and other animals during the early rains
D. expel the reproductives so as to provide enough food for other members
22. What is the primary function of cofactors?
A. To aid in enzyme functionβοΈ
B. To synthesize enzymes
C. To inhibit enzymes
D. To break down old enzymes
23. Size, colour and fingerprints are examples of __
A. physiological variation
B. discontinuous variation
C. morphological variationβοΈ
D. adaptive variation
24. Which of these organisms partly digest its food extracellularly?
A. Butterfly
B. Cockroach
C. SpiderβοΈ
D. Mosquito
25. The artery supplying the liver with blood is called
A. hepaticβοΈ
B. mesenteric
C. renal
D. subclavian.
26.The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remains constant from generation to generation is called
A. fusion
B. meiosisβοΈ
C. mitosis
D. oogenesis
27. The streaming movement of cytoplasm observed in a freshly cut leaf of a water plant is termed
A. amoeboids
B. centrifugal motion
C. ciliary motion
D. cyclosisβοΈ
28. Lianas is to tropical rain forest as an extensive root system is to ---------------- habitat
A. afro-alpine
B. estuarine
C. fresh - water
D. grass-landβοΈ
29.Which of the following functions of the body are nephrons associated with?
A. Circulation
B. Digestion
C. ExcretionβοΈ
D. Reproduction
30. The network of blood capillaries in the kidney capsule is referred to as
A. capsule
B. glomerulusβοΈ
C. pelvis
D. pyramid
31. Petals join together to form a tube known as
A. epigynous
B. gamopetalousβοΈ
C. hypogynous
D. polysepalous
32.The following are involved in reflex action EXCEPT
A. brain cellsβοΈ
B. intermediate neuron
C. motor neuron
D. sensory neuron
33. Which of the following is NOT an evidence of organic evolution?
A. Comparative anatomy
B. Embryology
C. Homologous features
D. Spontaneous generation.βοΈ
34. In terms of evolutionary trend, which of these invertebrates evolved first?
A. Arthropoda
B. Coelentrata
C. Platyhelminthes
D. ProtozoaβοΈ
35. An ovary with ovules arranged along its walls is said to have ------------ placentation.
A. axile
B. Marginal βοΈ
C. free central
D. parietal
36. The mouth part of a mosquito through which it sucks the blood of its victim is called
A. hypopharynx
B. mandible
C. StyletβοΈ
D. labium
37. Autecology is defined as the study of Interrelationship of
A. many species of organisms and their environment
B. same species of organisms and their environmentβοΈ
C. organisms in the atmosphere
D. organisms under the earthβs surface
38. The process by which some organisms oxidize inorganic compounds to obtain energy is known as
A. catabolism
B. chemosynthesis
C. glycolysis
D. photosynthesisβοΈ
39. An inflorescence is a
A. group of flowers borne on the same stalk
B. group of flowers born on different stalksβοΈ
C. flower pollinated by wind
D. plants which have both male and female reproductive organs
40. The growth of a coleoptile towards unilateral light source is due to
A. rapid rate of photosynthesis
B. unequal distribution of auxinβοΈ
C. the effect of geotropism
D. the effect of photolysis
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β
C. R. S
1. The caravan of Ishmaelites that bought Joseph traded in
A. balm, gum and myrrhβ
B. oil, balm and gum
C. myrrh, maize and wheat
D. gum, frankincense and oil
2. Before Joseph came to pharaoh after his release from prison, Joseph
A. ate some food
B. prayed fervently
C. shaved and ate
D. shaved and changed his clothesβ
3. How long was the famine before Joseph reconciled with his brother?
A. 1 year
B. 2 yearsβ
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
4. Which of the following was not an excuse Moses gave when he was called to deliver the Israelites?
A. The Israelites would not believe him
B. He was slow to speakβ
C. he was a murderer
D. He doubted his own ability
5. Regardless of the Egyptians' suffering, Pharaoh refused to let the Israelites go because
A. the Israelites gave them cheap labourβ
B. Pharaoh wanted to challenge god
C. god allowed the Israelites to suffer
D. the Israelites refused to pray to God
6. As soon as the Egyptians caught up with the Israelites at the Red sea, the pillar of clouds
A. vanished from the sight of the Israelites
B. stood on the left side of the Israelites
C. stood between the Israelites and the Egyptiansβ
D. moved ahead of the Israelites
7. The sin of the Israelites that led to the punishment by fiery serpents was
A. making the golden calf
B. speaking against God and Mosesβ
C. planning to return to Egypt
D. trying to stone Caleb and Joshua.
8. In Jotham's parable of the trees, Abimelech is very much likened to the
A. fig
B. brambleβ
C. olive
D. vine
9. Go into the hills, lest the pursuers meet you; and hide yourselves three days, until the pursuers have returned; then afterwards you may go your way' Who gave this advice?
A. Deborah
B. Rebekah
C. Rahab.β
D. Sihon.
10. During the confirmation of the covenant, Moses was invited by the Lord along with
A. Aaron, Nadab and Abihuβ
B. Aaron, Eleazar and Nadab
C. Abihu, Eleazar and Nadab
D. Eleazar, Aaron and Abihu
11. After me comes he who is mightier than I, the thong of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie who said this?
A. Jesus Christ
B. Mary Magdalene
C. Mark
D. John the Baptistβ
12. When Paul came to Rome, the first set of people to Whom he preached were the
A. Romans
B. Jewsβ
C. Greeks
D. Samaritans
13. Who addressed Jesus at Jericho saying "Jesus, son of David, have mercy on me'?
A. Bartimaeus the blind beggarβ
B. Simon the leper
C. Simon of Cyrene
D. James the son of Zebedee
14. By whom did the Lord heal the blindness of Paul?
A. Ananiasβ
B. Cephas
C. John Mark
D. Silas
15. The Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you, therefore the child, to be born will be called holy, the son of God' This was said by the angel Gabriel to
A. Elizabeth
B. Zechariah
C. Maryβ
D. Joseph
16. What did the Apostles do when complaints were made to them that some sections of the new Christian community were not being supplied with their needs for sustenance? They
A. gave out more money for buying food
B. said that they had neither gold nor silver
C. appointed seven deacons to undertake the care of the new Christiansβ
D. appointed the Apostles James, Peter and John to oversee the supply of provisions to the new Christians
17. Blessed are you among women and blessed is the fruit of your womb'. This was said by
A. the angel Gabriel
B. Simon
C. Anna
D. Elizabethβ
18. Therefore in the resurrection, whose wife shall of the seven for they all had her'? This question was put to Jesus by the
A. Pharisees
B. Scribes
C. Chief Priests
D. Sadduceesβ
19. To whom was this addressed? 'Rule over us, you and your son and your grandson also; for you have delivered us out of the hand of Midian
A. Deborah
B. Samson
C. Gideonβ
D. Jephthah
20. Who asked this question? Which is better for you that all seventy of the sons of Jerubbaal ruler over you, or that one rule over you?"
A. Abimelechβ
B. Ahimelech
C. Jothan
D. Elimetech
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1. The caravan of Ishmaelites that bought Joseph traded in
A. balm, gum and myrrhβ
B. oil, balm and gum
C. myrrh, maize and wheat
D. gum, frankincense and oil
2. Before Joseph came to pharaoh after his release from prison, Joseph
A. ate some food
B. prayed fervently
C. shaved and ate
D. shaved and changed his clothesβ
3. How long was the famine before Joseph reconciled with his brother?
A. 1 year
B. 2 yearsβ
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
4. Which of the following was not an excuse Moses gave when he was called to deliver the Israelites?
A. The Israelites would not believe him
B. He was slow to speakβ
C. he was a murderer
D. He doubted his own ability
5. Regardless of the Egyptians' suffering, Pharaoh refused to let the Israelites go because
A. the Israelites gave them cheap labourβ
B. Pharaoh wanted to challenge god
C. god allowed the Israelites to suffer
D. the Israelites refused to pray to God
6. As soon as the Egyptians caught up with the Israelites at the Red sea, the pillar of clouds
A. vanished from the sight of the Israelites
B. stood on the left side of the Israelites
C. stood between the Israelites and the Egyptiansβ
D. moved ahead of the Israelites
7. The sin of the Israelites that led to the punishment by fiery serpents was
A. making the golden calf
B. speaking against God and Mosesβ
C. planning to return to Egypt
D. trying to stone Caleb and Joshua.
8. In Jotham's parable of the trees, Abimelech is very much likened to the
A. fig
B. brambleβ
C. olive
D. vine
9. Go into the hills, lest the pursuers meet you; and hide yourselves three days, until the pursuers have returned; then afterwards you may go your way' Who gave this advice?
A. Deborah
B. Rebekah
C. Rahab.β
D. Sihon.
10. During the confirmation of the covenant, Moses was invited by the Lord along with
A. Aaron, Nadab and Abihuβ
B. Aaron, Eleazar and Nadab
C. Abihu, Eleazar and Nadab
D. Eleazar, Aaron and Abihu
11. After me comes he who is mightier than I, the thong of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie who said this?
A. Jesus Christ
B. Mary Magdalene
C. Mark
D. John the Baptistβ
12. When Paul came to Rome, the first set of people to Whom he preached were the
A. Romans
B. Jewsβ
C. Greeks
D. Samaritans
13. Who addressed Jesus at Jericho saying "Jesus, son of David, have mercy on me'?
A. Bartimaeus the blind beggarβ
B. Simon the leper
C. Simon of Cyrene
D. James the son of Zebedee
14. By whom did the Lord heal the blindness of Paul?
A. Ananiasβ
B. Cephas
C. John Mark
D. Silas
15. The Holy Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you, therefore the child, to be born will be called holy, the son of God' This was said by the angel Gabriel to
A. Elizabeth
B. Zechariah
C. Maryβ
D. Joseph
16. What did the Apostles do when complaints were made to them that some sections of the new Christian community were not being supplied with their needs for sustenance? They
A. gave out more money for buying food
B. said that they had neither gold nor silver
C. appointed seven deacons to undertake the care of the new Christiansβ
D. appointed the Apostles James, Peter and John to oversee the supply of provisions to the new Christians
17. Blessed are you among women and blessed is the fruit of your womb'. This was said by
A. the angel Gabriel
B. Simon
C. Anna
D. Elizabethβ
18. Therefore in the resurrection, whose wife shall of the seven for they all had her'? This question was put to Jesus by the
A. Pharisees
B. Scribes
C. Chief Priests
D. Sadduceesβ
19. To whom was this addressed? 'Rule over us, you and your son and your grandson also; for you have delivered us out of the hand of Midian
A. Deborah
B. Samson
C. Gideonβ
D. Jephthah
20. Who asked this question? Which is better for you that all seventy of the sons of Jerubbaal ruler over you, or that one rule over you?"
A. Abimelechβ
B. Ahimelech
C. Jothan
D. Elimetech
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21. Cursed be the man who takes food before evening, before I am able to avenge myself on my enemies This was said by Saul during the battle between Israel and the
A. Ammonites
B. Jebusites
C. Amalekites
D. Philistinesβ
22. At childhood, the word of the Lord came to Samuel because he
A. was righteous
B. had the qualities of a prophet
C. was to announce the punishment for the house of Eliβ
D. slept near the altar
23. Who was the man who in an attempt to prevent a disaster, touched the Ark and died when David was returning it to Jerusalem?
A. Obed-edom
B. Abinadab
C. Uzzahβ
D. Ahio
24. It was wrong for King Solomon to have married foreign women because
A. they would entice him to worship idolsβ
B. the women of Israel were more beautiful
C. they were very jealous
D. a king should not have too many children
25. The suggestion made by Prophet Nathan to Bathsheba to foil Adonijah's attempt to usurp the throne of David was to
A. have Adonijah banished
B. remind David of his promise that Solomon would succeed himβ
C. have Solomon secretly anointed by Zadok
D. plead with Adonijah to abandon the attempt
26. The jar of meal shall not be spent and the cruse of oil shall not fail, until the day that the Lord sends rain upon the earth. From the context, which of these statements is UNTRUE?
A. The meal in the jar and the oil in the cruse were continually replenished thereafter
B. The widow of Zarephath prepared food for Elijah
C. The widow and her son ate the food and waited for their deathβ
D. The woman was gathering sticks to prepare her last meal
27. How many months were the Israelites on forced labour in Lebanon allowed to spend at home for every month at the labour camp?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Fourβ
D. Five
28. Which of the following kings said, 'Behold your gods, O Israel, who brought you up out of the land of Egypt?
A. Rehoboam
B. Ahab
C. Jeroboamβ
D. Zedekiah
29. Which of these kings did not assassinate his predecessor but was assassinated by his successor?
A. Shallum
B. Pekah
C. Hosheaβ
D. Pekahiah
30. To whom does this refer? He burned his son as an offering, practiced soothsaying and augury, and dealt with mediums and with wizards. He did much evil in the sight of the Lord, provoking him to anger
A. Hezekiah
B. Manassehβ
C. Josiah
D. Jehoiakim
31. Hosea said that the children of Israel shall dwell many days without king or prince, without sacrifice or pillar, without.β¦
A. ephod or teraphimβ
B. prophet or seer
C. dream or vision
D. Tummim or Urin
32. Then the spirit of the Lord will come mightily upon you, and you shall prophesy with them 'The above was addressed to
A. Samuel
B. Saulβ
C. David
D. Jonathan
33. The evil spirit that tormented Saul left him whenever he
A. was asleep
B. was at prayer
C. drank wine
D. heard David's musicβ
34. Saul was made king publicly before the Lord and all the people of Israel at
A. Mizpahβ
B. Gilgal
C. Bethel
D. Dan
35. When the Queen of Sheba heard of Solomon's fame concerning the name of the Lord, she came to test him with her
A. questionsβ
B. beauty
C. army
D. wealth
36. The greatest of David's domestic problems that seemed to break his heart was the
A. rape of Tamar by Amnon
B. killing of Amnon by Absalom
C. conspiracy of Absalom against himβ
D. murder of Absalom by Joab
37. Besides the gifts of wisdom, what other gift did the Lord promise to Solomon but with a condition?
A. Riches
B. Honour
C. Long lifeβ
D. Victory in warfare
38. When Joseph discovered that his betrothed, Mary, was with child, he decided to divorce her quietly because
A. Mary was too tender and lovely
B. the angel warned Joseph not to be harsh on Mary
C. Joseph was disappointed with Mary
D. he was a just manβ
39. Though Herod wanted to put John the Baptist to death, he feared the people, because they held him to be a
A. priest
B. preacher
C. prophetβ
D. fore- runner of Christ
40. Which of these is NOT included in the instructions given to the disciples during their mission?
A. Heal the sick
B. Judge the peopleβ
C. Cleanse lepers
D. Raise the dead
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A. Ammonites
B. Jebusites
C. Amalekites
D. Philistinesβ
22. At childhood, the word of the Lord came to Samuel because he
A. was righteous
B. had the qualities of a prophet
C. was to announce the punishment for the house of Eliβ
D. slept near the altar
23. Who was the man who in an attempt to prevent a disaster, touched the Ark and died when David was returning it to Jerusalem?
A. Obed-edom
B. Abinadab
C. Uzzahβ
D. Ahio
24. It was wrong for King Solomon to have married foreign women because
A. they would entice him to worship idolsβ
B. the women of Israel were more beautiful
C. they were very jealous
D. a king should not have too many children
25. The suggestion made by Prophet Nathan to Bathsheba to foil Adonijah's attempt to usurp the throne of David was to
A. have Adonijah banished
B. remind David of his promise that Solomon would succeed himβ
C. have Solomon secretly anointed by Zadok
D. plead with Adonijah to abandon the attempt
26. The jar of meal shall not be spent and the cruse of oil shall not fail, until the day that the Lord sends rain upon the earth. From the context, which of these statements is UNTRUE?
A. The meal in the jar and the oil in the cruse were continually replenished thereafter
B. The widow of Zarephath prepared food for Elijah
C. The widow and her son ate the food and waited for their deathβ
D. The woman was gathering sticks to prepare her last meal
27. How many months were the Israelites on forced labour in Lebanon allowed to spend at home for every month at the labour camp?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Fourβ
D. Five
28. Which of the following kings said, 'Behold your gods, O Israel, who brought you up out of the land of Egypt?
A. Rehoboam
B. Ahab
C. Jeroboamβ
D. Zedekiah
29. Which of these kings did not assassinate his predecessor but was assassinated by his successor?
A. Shallum
B. Pekah
C. Hosheaβ
D. Pekahiah
30. To whom does this refer? He burned his son as an offering, practiced soothsaying and augury, and dealt with mediums and with wizards. He did much evil in the sight of the Lord, provoking him to anger
A. Hezekiah
B. Manassehβ
C. Josiah
D. Jehoiakim
31. Hosea said that the children of Israel shall dwell many days without king or prince, without sacrifice or pillar, without.β¦
A. ephod or teraphimβ
B. prophet or seer
C. dream or vision
D. Tummim or Urin
32. Then the spirit of the Lord will come mightily upon you, and you shall prophesy with them 'The above was addressed to
A. Samuel
B. Saulβ
C. David
D. Jonathan
33. The evil spirit that tormented Saul left him whenever he
A. was asleep
B. was at prayer
C. drank wine
D. heard David's musicβ
34. Saul was made king publicly before the Lord and all the people of Israel at
A. Mizpahβ
B. Gilgal
C. Bethel
D. Dan
35. When the Queen of Sheba heard of Solomon's fame concerning the name of the Lord, she came to test him with her
A. questionsβ
B. beauty
C. army
D. wealth
36. The greatest of David's domestic problems that seemed to break his heart was the
A. rape of Tamar by Amnon
B. killing of Amnon by Absalom
C. conspiracy of Absalom against himβ
D. murder of Absalom by Joab
37. Besides the gifts of wisdom, what other gift did the Lord promise to Solomon but with a condition?
A. Riches
B. Honour
C. Long lifeβ
D. Victory in warfare
38. When Joseph discovered that his betrothed, Mary, was with child, he decided to divorce her quietly because
A. Mary was too tender and lovely
B. the angel warned Joseph not to be harsh on Mary
C. Joseph was disappointed with Mary
D. he was a just manβ
39. Though Herod wanted to put John the Baptist to death, he feared the people, because they held him to be a
A. priest
B. preacher
C. prophetβ
D. fore- runner of Christ
40. Which of these is NOT included in the instructions given to the disciples during their mission?
A. Heal the sick
B. Judge the peopleβ
C. Cleanse lepers
D. Raise the dead
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https://t.me/ExamkeyNet
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