The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) has officially announced that 2,243,816 candidates registered for the 2026 Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME).
This record-breaking figure was disclosed in the Board's latest bulletin as the registration cycle concluded.
Key highlights from the 2026 registration report include:
Top Registered States: Lagos led with 321,814 candidates, followed by Kaduna (303,498) and FCT-Abuja (302,963).
Lowest Registration: Zamfara State recorded the fewest applicants, with 14,841 candidates.
Foreign Centres: International registrations were also recorded, with Cote D'Ivoire (32 candidates) and the United Kingdom (12 candidates) among the participating locations.
Examination Schedule: The 2026 UTME is scheduled to take place nationwide from April 16 to April 25, 2026.
Infrastructure Expansion: To manage the high volume, JAMB expanded its network to 1,000 accredited CBT centres, up from approximately 800 in the previous year.
This record-breaking figure was disclosed in the Board's latest bulletin as the registration cycle concluded.
Key highlights from the 2026 registration report include:
Top Registered States: Lagos led with 321,814 candidates, followed by Kaduna (303,498) and FCT-Abuja (302,963).
Lowest Registration: Zamfara State recorded the fewest applicants, with 14,841 candidates.
Foreign Centres: International registrations were also recorded, with Cote D'Ivoire (32 candidates) and the United Kingdom (12 candidates) among the participating locations.
Examination Schedule: The 2026 UTME is scheduled to take place nationwide from April 16 to April 25, 2026.
Infrastructure Expansion: To manage the high volume, JAMB expanded its network to 1,000 accredited CBT centres, up from approximately 800 in the previous year.
❤4
WAEC 2026 MIDNIGHT QUESTION AND ANSWER PAYMENTS!!!.
✅ALL SUBJECTS(COURSES)+PRACTICAL : ₦16,500
======================================
✅ALL SCIENCE SUBJECTS : ₦8,500
==========================
✅ALL ART SUBJECTS : ₦7,500
=======================
✅ALL COMMERCIAL SUBJECTS : ₦ 7,500
==============================
PAY INTO THE ACCOUNT BELOW
ACCOUNT NO:9056863938
ACCOUNT NAME: BLESSING
BANK: PALM PAY BANK /OPAY
Pls drop payment proves after payment done
===================================
WHATSAPP EXAMKEY 09056863938 / 09137409382 ONLY FOR YOUR PAYMENT!!!.
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP 1👇
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP 2👇
http://wa.me/+2349137409382
http://wa.me/+2349137409382.
✅ALL SUBJECTS(COURSES)+PRACTICAL : ₦16,500
======================================
✅ALL SCIENCE SUBJECTS : ₦8,500
==========================
✅ALL ART SUBJECTS : ₦7,500
=======================
✅ALL COMMERCIAL SUBJECTS : ₦ 7,500
==============================
PAY INTO THE ACCOUNT BELOW
ACCOUNT NO:9056863938
ACCOUNT NAME: BLESSING
BANK: PALM PAY BANK /OPAY
Pls drop payment proves after payment done
===================================
WHATSAPP EXAMKEY 09056863938 / 09137409382 ONLY FOR YOUR PAYMENT!!!.
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP 1👇
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP 2👇
http://wa.me/+2349137409382
http://wa.me/+2349137409382.
❤1
*PHYSICS JAMB PAST QUESTIONS*📝📚🧠🔥🔥
1) The inner diameter of a test tube can be measured accurately using a?
A. micrometer screw guage
B. pair of dividers
C. metre rule
D. pair of vernier calipers
2) Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1. They experience forces which impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of forces the masses experienced.
A. 1 : 4
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 5
3) Particles of mass 10−2
kg is fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100rad-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the centripetal force is
A. 2 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 400 N
4) A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms−1
into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is
A. 50 J
B. 100 J
C. 150 J
D. 200 J
5) A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is
(take g = 10ms-2)
A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 15 J
D. 20 J
6) A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25m/s in 20 secs. The power developed in the engine is
A. 1 . 25 x 104 W
B. 2 . 50 x 104 W
C. 1 . 25 x 106W
D. 2 . 50 x 106 W
7) When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force force on the tyres is
A. is a disadvantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
B. is a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
C. is an advantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
D. is an advantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
8) If the stress on a wire is 107NM-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. The young's modulus of the wire is
A. 5 . 0 x 104 Nm-2
B. 5 . 0 x 105 Nm-2
C. 2 . 0 x 108 Nm-2
D. 2 . 0 x 109 Nm-2
9) A solid weigh 10 .00 N in air, 6 N when fully immersed in water and 7 . 0 N when fully immersed in a liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid, X.
A. 5/3
B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 7/10
10) When temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain Constant
D. Increases then decreases
11) A gas at a volume of V0 in a container at pressure P0 is compressed to one-fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if the magnitude of its original temperature T is constant?
A. P0/5
B. 4P0/5
C. P0
D. 5P0
12) A piece of substance of specific head capacity 450JKg-1K-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10ms-2]
A. 2/9°C
B. 4/9°C
C. 9/4°C
D. 9/2°C
13) I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure
II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to increase in the boiling point.
III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases.
IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decrease the boiling point.
14) The temperature gradient across a copper rod of thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature junctions of 20°C and 80°C respectively is
A. 3.0 x 102Km-1
B. 3.0 x 103Km-1
C. 5.0 x 103Km-1
D. 3.0 x 104Km-1
15) Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss;
Specific heat capacity of copper = 400JKg-1K-1
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 105JKg-1
A. 8/33kg
B. 33/80kg
C. 80/33kg
D. 33/8kg
16) The equation of a wave traveling along the positive x-direction is given by;
y = 0.25 x 10−3
sin (500t - 0.025x).
Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion.
A. 0.25 x 10-3rad s-1
B. 0.25 x 10-1rad s-1
C. 5.00 x 102rad s-1
D. 2.50 x 103rad s-1
17) If a sound wave goes from a cold air region to a hot air region, its wavelength will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. decrease then increase
D. remain constant
1) The inner diameter of a test tube can be measured accurately using a?
A. micrometer screw guage
B. pair of dividers
C. metre rule
D. pair of vernier calipers
2) Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1. They experience forces which impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of forces the masses experienced.
A. 1 : 4
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 5
3) Particles of mass 10−2
kg is fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100rad-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the centripetal force is
A. 2 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 400 N
4) A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms−1
into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is
A. 50 J
B. 100 J
C. 150 J
D. 200 J
5) A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is
(take g = 10ms-2)
A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 15 J
D. 20 J
6) A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25m/s in 20 secs. The power developed in the engine is
A. 1 . 25 x 104 W
B. 2 . 50 x 104 W
C. 1 . 25 x 106W
D. 2 . 50 x 106 W
7) When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force force on the tyres is
A. is a disadvantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
B. is a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
C. is an advantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
D. is an advantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
8) If the stress on a wire is 107NM-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. The young's modulus of the wire is
A. 5 . 0 x 104 Nm-2
B. 5 . 0 x 105 Nm-2
C. 2 . 0 x 108 Nm-2
D. 2 . 0 x 109 Nm-2
9) A solid weigh 10 .00 N in air, 6 N when fully immersed in water and 7 . 0 N when fully immersed in a liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid, X.
A. 5/3
B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 7/10
10) When temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain Constant
D. Increases then decreases
11) A gas at a volume of V0 in a container at pressure P0 is compressed to one-fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if the magnitude of its original temperature T is constant?
A. P0/5
B. 4P0/5
C. P0
D. 5P0
12) A piece of substance of specific head capacity 450JKg-1K-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10ms-2]
A. 2/9°C
B. 4/9°C
C. 9/4°C
D. 9/2°C
13) I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure
II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to increase in the boiling point.
III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases.
IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decrease the boiling point.
14) The temperature gradient across a copper rod of thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature junctions of 20°C and 80°C respectively is
A. 3.0 x 102Km-1
B. 3.0 x 103Km-1
C. 5.0 x 103Km-1
D. 3.0 x 104Km-1
15) Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss;
Specific heat capacity of copper = 400JKg-1K-1
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 105JKg-1
A. 8/33kg
B. 33/80kg
C. 80/33kg
D. 33/8kg
16) The equation of a wave traveling along the positive x-direction is given by;
y = 0.25 x 10−3
sin (500t - 0.025x).
Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion.
A. 0.25 x 10-3rad s-1
B. 0.25 x 10-1rad s-1
C. 5.00 x 102rad s-1
D. 2.50 x 103rad s-1
17) If a sound wave goes from a cold air region to a hot air region, its wavelength will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. decrease then increase
D. remain constant
❤2🤔1
18) The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40Hz. How many overtones are there between 40hz and 180Hz?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
19) A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is
A. 3m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 10m
20) The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will therefore form a
A. concave mirror of focal length 5cm
B. concave mirror of focal length 10cm
C. convex mirror of focal length 5cm
D. convex mirror of focal length 20cm
21) The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x 108ms-1 and 2.0 x 108ms-1 respectively. If the angle of refraction is 30°, the sine of the angle of incidence is
A. 0.33
B. 0.50
C. 0.67
D. 0.75
22) An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the
A. eye is accommodated
B. focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece
C. final image is at the near point of eye
D. final image is at infinity
23) Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic?
A. Infra-red rays
B. X-rays
C. Ultra-violet rays
D. Gamma rays
24) Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than iron because the former
A. is easily demagnetized by shaing vigorously
B. is an alloy of many metals
C. is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle
D. retains magnetism more than iron
25) Four cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and internal resistance of 4Ω are connected in parallel. What is the effective e.m.f. and internal resistance of the combination?
A. 6.0V, 16Ω
B. 6.0V, 1Ω
C. 1.5V, 4Ω
D. 1.5V, 1Ω
26) A 3000W electric cooker is to be used on a 200V mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be used safely with the cooker?
A. 2A
B. 5A
C. 10A
D. 20A
27) A galvanometer has a resistance of 5Ω. By using a shunt wire of resistance 0.05Ω, the galvanometer could be converted to an ammeter capable of reading 2Amp. What is the current through the galvanometer?
A. 2mA
B. 10mA
C. 20mA
D. 25mA
28) In fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the
A. motion, the field and the induced current
B. induced current, the motion and the field
C. field, the induced current and the motion
D. induced current, the field and the motion
29) At what frequency would a 10H inductor have a reactance of 2000Ω?
A. π/200Hz
B. π/100Hz
C. 100/πHz
D. 100πHz
30) The core of an efficient transformer should consist of laminated pieces of metal in order to
A. increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
B. increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
C. reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
D. reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
31) Gamma rays are produced when
A. high velocity electrons are abruptly stopped in metals
B. energy changes occur within the nucleus of atoms
C. energy changes occur within the electronic structure of atoms
D. electrons are deflected in very strong magnetic fields
32) What is the speed of a particle of mass 10-27kg whose wavelength is 10-8m.
[h = 6.63 x 10-34Js]
A. 6.63ms-1
B. 66.30ms-1
C. 663.00ms-1
D. 6630.00ms-1
33) in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance, the voltages across the resistor and the inductor are 30V and 40V respectively, what is the voltage across the capacitor?
A. 30V
B. 40V
C. 50V
D. 70V
34) In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film with some of the particles being considerably deflected. This shows that
A. a gold nucleus contains protons, neutrons and electrons uniformly distributed in a tiny volume
B. the gold nucleus is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume
C. the gold nucleus emitted alpha particles
D. the gold nucleus is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles
35) 2311Na + Proton → pqX + alpha particle
What are the values of p and q respectively in the equation above?
A. 10 and 20
B. 12 and 24
C. 20 and 10
D. 24 and 12
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
19) A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is
A. 3m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 10m
20) The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will therefore form a
A. concave mirror of focal length 5cm
B. concave mirror of focal length 10cm
C. convex mirror of focal length 5cm
D. convex mirror of focal length 20cm
21) The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x 108ms-1 and 2.0 x 108ms-1 respectively. If the angle of refraction is 30°, the sine of the angle of incidence is
A. 0.33
B. 0.50
C. 0.67
D. 0.75
22) An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the
A. eye is accommodated
B. focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece
C. final image is at the near point of eye
D. final image is at infinity
23) Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic?
A. Infra-red rays
B. X-rays
C. Ultra-violet rays
D. Gamma rays
24) Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than iron because the former
A. is easily demagnetized by shaing vigorously
B. is an alloy of many metals
C. is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle
D. retains magnetism more than iron
25) Four cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and internal resistance of 4Ω are connected in parallel. What is the effective e.m.f. and internal resistance of the combination?
A. 6.0V, 16Ω
B. 6.0V, 1Ω
C. 1.5V, 4Ω
D. 1.5V, 1Ω
26) A 3000W electric cooker is to be used on a 200V mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be used safely with the cooker?
A. 2A
B. 5A
C. 10A
D. 20A
27) A galvanometer has a resistance of 5Ω. By using a shunt wire of resistance 0.05Ω, the galvanometer could be converted to an ammeter capable of reading 2Amp. What is the current through the galvanometer?
A. 2mA
B. 10mA
C. 20mA
D. 25mA
28) In fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the
A. motion, the field and the induced current
B. induced current, the motion and the field
C. field, the induced current and the motion
D. induced current, the field and the motion
29) At what frequency would a 10H inductor have a reactance of 2000Ω?
A. π/200Hz
B. π/100Hz
C. 100/πHz
D. 100πHz
30) The core of an efficient transformer should consist of laminated pieces of metal in order to
A. increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
B. increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
C. reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
D. reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
31) Gamma rays are produced when
A. high velocity electrons are abruptly stopped in metals
B. energy changes occur within the nucleus of atoms
C. energy changes occur within the electronic structure of atoms
D. electrons are deflected in very strong magnetic fields
32) What is the speed of a particle of mass 10-27kg whose wavelength is 10-8m.
[h = 6.63 x 10-34Js]
A. 6.63ms-1
B. 66.30ms-1
C. 663.00ms-1
D. 6630.00ms-1
33) in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance, the voltages across the resistor and the inductor are 30V and 40V respectively, what is the voltage across the capacitor?
A. 30V
B. 40V
C. 50V
D. 70V
34) In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film with some of the particles being considerably deflected. This shows that
A. a gold nucleus contains protons, neutrons and electrons uniformly distributed in a tiny volume
B. the gold nucleus is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume
C. the gold nucleus emitted alpha particles
D. the gold nucleus is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles
35) 2311Na + Proton → pqX + alpha particle
What are the values of p and q respectively in the equation above?
A. 10 and 20
B. 12 and 24
C. 20 and 10
D. 24 and 12
36) A semiconductor diode is used in rectifying alternating current into direct current mainly because it
A. allows current to flow in either direction
B. is non-linear
C. offers a high input resistance
D. allows current to flow only in one direction
37) if ∆x is the uncertainty in the measurement of the position of a particle along the x-axis and ∆Px is the uncertainty in the measurement of the linear momentum along the x-axis, then the uncertainty principle relation is given as
A. ∆x ∆Px ≥ h
B. ∆x ∆Px = 0
C. ∆x ∆Px < h
D. ∆x ∆Px = ∞
38) When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, the fraction of its volume above the water surface will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. increase then decrease
39) I. Its velocity is constant
II. No work is done on the body
III. It has constant acceleration directed away from the centre
IV. The centripetal force is directed towards the centre
40) The velocity ratio of a machine is 5 and its efficiency is 75%. What effort would be needed to lift a load of 150N with the machine?
A. 20N
B. 30N
C. 40N
D. 50N
41) At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure downwards is P1 and pressure upwards is P2. It can be deduced that?
A. P1 > P2
B. P1 ≥ P2
C. P1 < P2
D. P1 = P2
42) If the force and the velocity on a system are each reduced simultaneously by half, the power of the system is
A. doubled
B. reduced to a quarter
C. reduced by half
D. constant
43) A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F. If the stone leaves with a velocity of 40m/s, the value of F is
A. 4.0 x 102N
B. 2.0 x 103N
C. 4.0 x 103N
D. 4.0 x 104N
44) A stream is flowing at 0.75ms−1
and a boat heading perpendicular for the stream landed at the opposite bank at an angle of 30°. Calculate the velocity of the boat.
A. 1.50ms-1
B. 1.00ms-1
C. 0.86ms-1
D. 0.65ms-1
45) A rope is being used to pull a mass of 10kg vertically upward. Determine the tension in the rope if, starting from rest, the mass acquires a velocity of 4ms−1 in 8s [g = 10ms−2]
A. 5N
B. 50N
C. 95N
D. 105N
46) I. The frictional force is independent of the area of the surfaces in conduct
II. The frictional force depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact
III. The frictional force depends on the speed of sliding
IV. The frictional force is directly proportional to the normal reaction.
Which combination of the above is true of sliding friction?
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
47) Total internal reflection occurs when light moves from?
A. a dense medium to a less dense medium
B. air to water
C. water to glass
D. a less dense to a dense medium
48) A quantity of water at 0°C is heated to about 30°C. At each degree rise in temperature, its density will
A. rise steadily
B. fall steadily
C. fall then rise
D. rise then fall
49) I. Coherence
II. Same frequency
III. Same wavelength
IV. Same Intensity
Which of the conditions above are necessary to produce interference fringes?
A. I and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
50) A boy observes a piece of stone at the bottom of a river 6.0m deep. If he looks from the surface of the river, what is the apparent distance of the stone from him? [Refractive Index of Water = 4/3]
A. 8.0m
B. 5.5m
C. 5.0m
D. 4.5m
A. allows current to flow in either direction
B. is non-linear
C. offers a high input resistance
D. allows current to flow only in one direction
37) if ∆x is the uncertainty in the measurement of the position of a particle along the x-axis and ∆Px is the uncertainty in the measurement of the linear momentum along the x-axis, then the uncertainty principle relation is given as
A. ∆x ∆Px ≥ h
B. ∆x ∆Px = 0
C. ∆x ∆Px < h
D. ∆x ∆Px = ∞
38) When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, the fraction of its volume above the water surface will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. increase then decrease
39) I. Its velocity is constant
II. No work is done on the body
III. It has constant acceleration directed away from the centre
IV. The centripetal force is directed towards the centre
40) The velocity ratio of a machine is 5 and its efficiency is 75%. What effort would be needed to lift a load of 150N with the machine?
A. 20N
B. 30N
C. 40N
D. 50N
41) At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure downwards is P1 and pressure upwards is P2. It can be deduced that?
A. P1 > P2
B. P1 ≥ P2
C. P1 < P2
D. P1 = P2
42) If the force and the velocity on a system are each reduced simultaneously by half, the power of the system is
A. doubled
B. reduced to a quarter
C. reduced by half
D. constant
43) A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F. If the stone leaves with a velocity of 40m/s, the value of F is
A. 4.0 x 102N
B. 2.0 x 103N
C. 4.0 x 103N
D. 4.0 x 104N
44) A stream is flowing at 0.75ms−1
and a boat heading perpendicular for the stream landed at the opposite bank at an angle of 30°. Calculate the velocity of the boat.
A. 1.50ms-1
B. 1.00ms-1
C. 0.86ms-1
D. 0.65ms-1
45) A rope is being used to pull a mass of 10kg vertically upward. Determine the tension in the rope if, starting from rest, the mass acquires a velocity of 4ms−1 in 8s [g = 10ms−2]
A. 5N
B. 50N
C. 95N
D. 105N
46) I. The frictional force is independent of the area of the surfaces in conduct
II. The frictional force depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact
III. The frictional force depends on the speed of sliding
IV. The frictional force is directly proportional to the normal reaction.
Which combination of the above is true of sliding friction?
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
47) Total internal reflection occurs when light moves from?
A. a dense medium to a less dense medium
B. air to water
C. water to glass
D. a less dense to a dense medium
48) A quantity of water at 0°C is heated to about 30°C. At each degree rise in temperature, its density will
A. rise steadily
B. fall steadily
C. fall then rise
D. rise then fall
49) I. Coherence
II. Same frequency
III. Same wavelength
IV. Same Intensity
Which of the conditions above are necessary to produce interference fringes?
A. I and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
50) A boy observes a piece of stone at the bottom of a river 6.0m deep. If he looks from the surface of the river, what is the apparent distance of the stone from him? [Refractive Index of Water = 4/3]
A. 8.0m
B. 5.5m
C. 5.0m
D. 4.5m
🆒1
Do your corrections
*📚 PHYSICS JAMB – FULL EXPLANATIONS🧠🔥*
1. D – Vernier calipers
Used to measure internal diameter accurately.
2. C – 2 : 3
Using F = ma → (3×2):(1×9) = 6:9 = 2:3.
3. B – 20N
F = mω²r = 0.01 × 100² × 0.2 = 20N.
4. A – 50J
Momentum conserved → KE = 50J.
5. C – 15J
Total energy = KE + PE = 15J.
6. A – 1.25 × 10⁴W
Power = Work/time.
7. D
Friction opposes motion and helps stop the car.
8. D – 2.0 × 10⁹ N/m²
Young’s modulus = stress/strain.
9. C – 3/4
Relative density = 3/4.
10. A – Decreases
Surface tension decreases with temperature.
11. D – 5P₀
Boyle’s Law.
12. B – 4/9°C
From mgh = mc∆T.
13. I, II and III
Correct boiling principles.
14. B – 3.0 × 10³ K/m
Gradient = change/thickness.
15. A – 8/33kg
Heat lost = heat gained.
16. C – 5.0 × 10² rad/s
Coefficient of t.
17. A – Increase
Hot air increases wavelength.
18. B – 3
80Hz, 120Hz, 160Hz.
19. C – 6m
Mirror shift effect.
20. A – Concave mirror (5cm)
f = R/2.
21. D – 0.75
Snell’s Law.
22. D
Image at infinity.
23. A – Infra-red
Least energetic.
24. D
Steel retains magnetism longer.
25. D – 1.5V, 1Ω
Parallel cells rule.
26. D – 20A
Next higher fuse after 15A.
27. C – 20mA
Current division.
28. A
Thumb = motion, Forefinger = field, Middle = current.
29. C – 100/π Hz
From XL formula.
30. D
Reduces eddy current heating.
31. B
Gamma from nucleus.
32. B – 66.3m/s
De Broglie equation.
33. B – 40V
At resonance VL = VC.
34. B
Nucleus small and positive.
35. D – 24 and 12
Balanced nuclear equation.
36. D
Diode conducts one way.
37. A
Uncertainty principle.
38. B – Decrease
Ship sinks more in fresh water.
39. I, II and IV
Uniform circular motion facts.
40. C – 40N
Efficiency formula.
41. D – Equal
Pressure same in all directions.
42. B – Quarter
Power = FV.
43. B – 2.0 × 10³N
Elastic energy = KE.
44. A – 1.5m/s
Vector resolution.
45. D – 105N
T = m(g+a).
46. B – I, II and IV
Laws of sliding friction.
47. A
Dense to less dense medium.
48. D
Water density behavior.
49. C – I, II and III
Conditions for interference.
50. D – 4.5m
Apparent depth formula.
*📚 PHYSICS JAMB – FULL EXPLANATIONS🧠🔥*
1. D – Vernier calipers
Used to measure internal diameter accurately.
2. C – 2 : 3
Using F = ma → (3×2):(1×9) = 6:9 = 2:3.
3. B – 20N
F = mω²r = 0.01 × 100² × 0.2 = 20N.
4. A – 50J
Momentum conserved → KE = 50J.
5. C – 15J
Total energy = KE + PE = 15J.
6. A – 1.25 × 10⁴W
Power = Work/time.
7. D
Friction opposes motion and helps stop the car.
8. D – 2.0 × 10⁹ N/m²
Young’s modulus = stress/strain.
9. C – 3/4
Relative density = 3/4.
10. A – Decreases
Surface tension decreases with temperature.
11. D – 5P₀
Boyle’s Law.
12. B – 4/9°C
From mgh = mc∆T.
13. I, II and III
Correct boiling principles.
14. B – 3.0 × 10³ K/m
Gradient = change/thickness.
15. A – 8/33kg
Heat lost = heat gained.
16. C – 5.0 × 10² rad/s
Coefficient of t.
17. A – Increase
Hot air increases wavelength.
18. B – 3
80Hz, 120Hz, 160Hz.
19. C – 6m
Mirror shift effect.
20. A – Concave mirror (5cm)
f = R/2.
21. D – 0.75
Snell’s Law.
22. D
Image at infinity.
23. A – Infra-red
Least energetic.
24. D
Steel retains magnetism longer.
25. D – 1.5V, 1Ω
Parallel cells rule.
26. D – 20A
Next higher fuse after 15A.
27. C – 20mA
Current division.
28. A
Thumb = motion, Forefinger = field, Middle = current.
29. C – 100/π Hz
From XL formula.
30. D
Reduces eddy current heating.
31. B
Gamma from nucleus.
32. B – 66.3m/s
De Broglie equation.
33. B – 40V
At resonance VL = VC.
34. B
Nucleus small and positive.
35. D – 24 and 12
Balanced nuclear equation.
36. D
Diode conducts one way.
37. A
Uncertainty principle.
38. B – Decrease
Ship sinks more in fresh water.
39. I, II and IV
Uniform circular motion facts.
40. C – 40N
Efficiency formula.
41. D – Equal
Pressure same in all directions.
42. B – Quarter
Power = FV.
43. B – 2.0 × 10³N
Elastic energy = KE.
44. A – 1.5m/s
Vector resolution.
45. D – 105N
T = m(g+a).
46. B – I, II and IV
Laws of sliding friction.
47. A
Dense to less dense medium.
48. D
Water density behavior.
49. C – I, II and III
Conditions for interference.
50. D – 4.5m
Apparent depth formula.
🤔1
WASSCE FOR SCHOOL CANDIDATES, 2026: EXTENSION OF REGISTRATION OF ENTRIES
This is to inform all school principals that the Head of National Office has graciously approved the extension of registration of entries for the WASSCE(SC)2026 From today 2nd of March 2026, to Thursday 5th of March 2026.
All schools are urged to utilize this window to complete their registrations, as further extensions will not be granted.
Thank you.
WAEC ZONAL OFFICE
MGT.
This is to inform all school principals that the Head of National Office has graciously approved the extension of registration of entries for the WASSCE(SC)2026 From today 2nd of March 2026, to Thursday 5th of March 2026.
All schools are urged to utilize this window to complete their registrations, as further extensions will not be granted.
Thank you.
WAEC ZONAL OFFICE
MGT.
❤2
*JAMB MATHEMATICS CBT QUESTIONS 🔥🔥📚📝😴😴*
1. Sets
The set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is equivalent to
A. {2, 3, 1, 4}
B. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5}
C. {1, 2, 3, 4}
D. {4, 3, 1, 5, 2}
2. Simultaneous Equations
Solve the simultaneous equations:
x² − y⁵ = 1
y − x³ = 8
A. x = 10, y = −6
B. x = 10, y = 6
C. x = 6, y = 10
D. x = 10, y = 6
3. Inequality
Solve the inequality:
2x + 3 > 5x + 8
A. x > 1/23
B. x > −1/23
C. x < −1/23
D. x < 1/23
4. Binary Operation
Given that a * b = a + ab + (a − b), find the value of 3 * 2
A. −6
B. 11/6
C. 6/11
D. −1
5. Indices
Simplify:
125⁻¹ᐟ³ × 49⁻¹ᐟ² × 100
A. 135
B. 1350
C. 350
D. 35
6. Coordinate Geometry
Find the coordinates of the midpoint of line PQ given
P(−3, 4) and Q(5, 6).
A. (1, 4)
B. (4, 1)
C. (5, 1)
D. (1, 5)
7. Trigonometry
Given that cos A = 12/13 for 0° ≤ A ≤ 90°, find tan A.
A. 5/12
B. 12/13
C. 5/13
D. 13/12
8. Construction
Which of the following angles cannot be constructed using a protractor, a compass, and a sharpened pencil?
A. 135°
B. 90°
C. 145°
D. 60°
9. Permutation
Find the number of permutations of the letters of the word SCHOOL.
A. 600
B. 360
C. 480
D. 300
10. Variation
y is partly constant and partly varies as x.
When x = 3, y = 7 and when x = 5, y = 11.
Find the constants of variation.
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 3, 2
D. 3, 4
11. Average
The average weight of 15 iron bars is 1000 kg.
If the heaviest iron bar is removed, the average weight is reduced by 5 kg.
Find the weight of the heaviest iron bar.
A. 1170 kg
B. 1270 kg
C. 1070 kg
D. 1370 kg
12. Matrices
Find the sum of the entries in the inverse of the matrix
\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 3 \\
2 & 5
\end{pmatrix}
A. 1
B. −1
C. 2
D. 0.5
13. Direct Variation
A varies directly as b².
When A = 4 and b = 1, find A when b = 2.
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 11
14. Determinant
If I is a 2 × 2 identity matrix, find the determinant of the matrix.
A. 1
B. 2
C. −1
D. 0
15. Determinant (Parameter)
The determinant of the matrix
\begin{pmatrix}
−2 & p \\
1 & 3
\end{pmatrix}
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1
16. Mean
The mean of the numbers 0, x + 2, 3x + 6, and 4x + 8 is 4.
Find the value of x.
A. 25
B. 29
C. 0
D. 4
17. Straight Line
Obtain the equation of a straight line passing through (3, 15) whose slope is 3/5.
A. 5y + 16x + 27 = 0
B. 5y − 16x + 27 = 0
C. 5y − 16x − 27 = 0
D. 5y + 16x − 27 = 0
18. Profit and Loss
A car dealer bought a used car for ₦270,000 and spent ₦70,000 to refurbish it.
He later sold the car for ₦490,000.
What was the percentage profit?
A. 30%
B. 35%
C. 25%
D. 45%
19. Probability
In a basket of fruits, there are 6 grapes, 11 bananas, and 13 oranges.
If one fruit is chosen at random, what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana?
A. 17/30
B. 11/30
C. 6/30
D. 5/30
20. Polygon
Calculate the interior angle of a 5-sided regular polygon.
A. 120°
B. 90°
C. 108°
D. 180°
21. Probability
Find the probability of getting an even number in a single throw of a six-sided die.
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
22. Integration
Integrate:
y = 4x³ + 2x + cos x
A. x⁴ − x² − sin x + C
B. x⁴ + x² + sin x + C
C. x⁴ − x² + sin x + C
D. x⁴ + x² − sin x + C
23. Logarithms
Simplify:
−log₁₀(0.00001)
A. −5
B. −4
C. 5
D. 4
24. Circle Geometry
The chord of a circle of radius 17 cm is 30 cm long.
Calculate the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle.
A. 15 cm
B. 47 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 169 cm
25. Limits
Find the limit of
\frac{x^3 − 2x^2 + 6x − 12}{x − 2}
A. Infinity
B. 10
C. 0
D. 12
26. Geometric Progression
The second and fifth terms of a G.P. are 1 and 18 respectively.
Find the common ratio.
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
27. Simple Interest
An amount of ₦600,000 was realized when a principal y was saved at 5% simple interest for 4 years.
Find the value of y.
A. ₦570,000
B. ₦500,000
C. ₦300,000
D. ₦400,000
28. Arithmetic Progression
Given the progression 3, 5, 7, 9, …
Find an expression for the (n − 2)th term.
A. 2n − 1
B. 2n + 1
C. 2n + 3
D. 2n − 3
29. Differentiation
Find the derivative of y = sin 4x.
A. −4 sin x
B. −4 cos x
C. 4 sin 4x
D. 4 cos 4x
30. Formula
If
1. Sets
The set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is equivalent to
A. {2, 3, 1, 4}
B. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5}
C. {1, 2, 3, 4}
D. {4, 3, 1, 5, 2}
2. Simultaneous Equations
Solve the simultaneous equations:
x² − y⁵ = 1
y − x³ = 8
A. x = 10, y = −6
B. x = 10, y = 6
C. x = 6, y = 10
D. x = 10, y = 6
3. Inequality
Solve the inequality:
2x + 3 > 5x + 8
A. x > 1/23
B. x > −1/23
C. x < −1/23
D. x < 1/23
4. Binary Operation
Given that a * b = a + ab + (a − b), find the value of 3 * 2
A. −6
B. 11/6
C. 6/11
D. −1
5. Indices
Simplify:
125⁻¹ᐟ³ × 49⁻¹ᐟ² × 100
A. 135
B. 1350
C. 350
D. 35
6. Coordinate Geometry
Find the coordinates of the midpoint of line PQ given
P(−3, 4) and Q(5, 6).
A. (1, 4)
B. (4, 1)
C. (5, 1)
D. (1, 5)
7. Trigonometry
Given that cos A = 12/13 for 0° ≤ A ≤ 90°, find tan A.
A. 5/12
B. 12/13
C. 5/13
D. 13/12
8. Construction
Which of the following angles cannot be constructed using a protractor, a compass, and a sharpened pencil?
A. 135°
B. 90°
C. 145°
D. 60°
9. Permutation
Find the number of permutations of the letters of the word SCHOOL.
A. 600
B. 360
C. 480
D. 300
10. Variation
y is partly constant and partly varies as x.
When x = 3, y = 7 and when x = 5, y = 11.
Find the constants of variation.
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 3, 2
D. 3, 4
11. Average
The average weight of 15 iron bars is 1000 kg.
If the heaviest iron bar is removed, the average weight is reduced by 5 kg.
Find the weight of the heaviest iron bar.
A. 1170 kg
B. 1270 kg
C. 1070 kg
D. 1370 kg
12. Matrices
Find the sum of the entries in the inverse of the matrix
\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 3 \\
2 & 5
\end{pmatrix}
A. 1
B. −1
C. 2
D. 0.5
13. Direct Variation
A varies directly as b².
When A = 4 and b = 1, find A when b = 2.
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 11
14. Determinant
If I is a 2 × 2 identity matrix, find the determinant of the matrix.
A. 1
B. 2
C. −1
D. 0
15. Determinant (Parameter)
The determinant of the matrix
\begin{pmatrix}
−2 & p \\
1 & 3
\end{pmatrix}
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1
16. Mean
The mean of the numbers 0, x + 2, 3x + 6, and 4x + 8 is 4.
Find the value of x.
A. 25
B. 29
C. 0
D. 4
17. Straight Line
Obtain the equation of a straight line passing through (3, 15) whose slope is 3/5.
A. 5y + 16x + 27 = 0
B. 5y − 16x + 27 = 0
C. 5y − 16x − 27 = 0
D. 5y + 16x − 27 = 0
18. Profit and Loss
A car dealer bought a used car for ₦270,000 and spent ₦70,000 to refurbish it.
He later sold the car for ₦490,000.
What was the percentage profit?
A. 30%
B. 35%
C. 25%
D. 45%
19. Probability
In a basket of fruits, there are 6 grapes, 11 bananas, and 13 oranges.
If one fruit is chosen at random, what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana?
A. 17/30
B. 11/30
C. 6/30
D. 5/30
20. Polygon
Calculate the interior angle of a 5-sided regular polygon.
A. 120°
B. 90°
C. 108°
D. 180°
21. Probability
Find the probability of getting an even number in a single throw of a six-sided die.
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
22. Integration
Integrate:
y = 4x³ + 2x + cos x
A. x⁴ − x² − sin x + C
B. x⁴ + x² + sin x + C
C. x⁴ − x² + sin x + C
D. x⁴ + x² − sin x + C
23. Logarithms
Simplify:
−log₁₀(0.00001)
A. −5
B. −4
C. 5
D. 4
24. Circle Geometry
The chord of a circle of radius 17 cm is 30 cm long.
Calculate the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle.
A. 15 cm
B. 47 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 169 cm
25. Limits
Find the limit of
\frac{x^3 − 2x^2 + 6x − 12}{x − 2}
A. Infinity
B. 10
C. 0
D. 12
26. Geometric Progression
The second and fifth terms of a G.P. are 1 and 18 respectively.
Find the common ratio.
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
27. Simple Interest
An amount of ₦600,000 was realized when a principal y was saved at 5% simple interest for 4 years.
Find the value of y.
A. ₦570,000
B. ₦500,000
C. ₦300,000
D. ₦400,000
28. Arithmetic Progression
Given the progression 3, 5, 7, 9, …
Find an expression for the (n − 2)th term.
A. 2n − 1
B. 2n + 1
C. 2n + 3
D. 2n − 3
29. Differentiation
Find the derivative of y = sin 4x.
A. −4 sin x
B. −4 cos x
C. 4 sin 4x
D. 4 cos 4x
30. Formula
If
❤6
A = \frac{θ}{360}πr^2
A. θ = 360πA
B. θ = 360A / (πθ)
C. θ = 360A / (πr²)
D. θ = 360r² / (πA)
31. Quadratic Function
What is the minimum value of
y = 2 − 4x − 2x² ?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2
32. Probability
If the probability of death is q and the probability of survival is p, find the probability of one death and one survival in an accident involving two persons.
A. p/q
B. pq
C. p − q
D. p + q
33. Number Bases
Convert 137₁₀ to base 5.
A. 1022₅
B. 2102₅
C. 2210₅
D. 2201₅
34. Variation
P is partly constant and partly varies as Q.
If P = 32 when Q = 16 and P = 20 when Q = 12, find P when Q = 28.
A. 68
B. 64
C. 66
D. 62
35. Permutation
In how many ways can the letters of the word HANDIER be arranged?
A. 3080
B. 2650
C. 4050
D. 5040
36. Indices
Find the value of t for which
(1/2)^(t−1) = 64
A. −6
B. −5
C. −7
D. −4
37. Number Bases
If 54₁₀ = X₄, find the value of X correct to 3 digits.
A. 132₄
B. 312₄
C. 123₄
D. 321₄
38. Integration
Integrate the function
y = 3x² + 2x − 5
with respect to x.
A. x³ + x² − 5x + C
B. x² + 2x² − 5x + C
C. x² + 2x − 5 + C
D. x³ + 2x − 5 + C
39. Standard Form
Express
\sqrt{0.16} × 10^4
A. 2 × 10⁻¹²
B. 2 × 10²
C. 2 × 10⁻²
D. 2 × 10¹²
40. Inequality
Solve:
x² + 3x − 4 ≤ 0
A. −4 ≥ x ≥ 1
B. 4 ≤ x ≤ −1
C. 4 ≥ x ≥ 1
D. −4 ≤ x ≤ 1
41. Surds
Solve for y in
\sqrt{75} − \sqrt{12} + \sqrt{27} = \sqrt{y}
A. √43
B. √53
C. √33
D. √63
42. Trigonometry
If cos θ = x/y, find tan θ in terms of x and y.
A. √(y² − x²) / x
B. √(y² + x²) / x
C. (y + x) / √x
D. √(x² − y²) / x
43. Vectors
Given
P = (1, 2, 3, −5)
Q = (3, 1, −7, 2)
Find P + 2Q.
A. (7, 4, −11, −1)
B. (7, 4, −11, −9)
C. (−7, −4, 11, −1)
D. (11, 4, −7, −1)
44. Statistics
The table above shows the weights of twelve mathematics students.
Find the modal weight.
A. 54
B. 58
C. 60
D. 62
45. Binary Operation
A binary operation * is defined on the set
X = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
as a * b = ab + a + b.
Compute 1 * 3.
A. 14
B. 4
C. 7
D. 5
46. Bearings
A bird flies from a tree P on a bearing of N60°E to a building Q, a distance of 200 km.
It then flies to another tree R on a bearing of S30°E.
Tree R is directly east of tree P.
Calculate the distance from the building to tree R.
A. 200√3
B. 100√3
C. 100
D. 200/√3
A. θ = 360πA
B. θ = 360A / (πθ)
C. θ = 360A / (πr²)
D. θ = 360r² / (πA)
31. Quadratic Function
What is the minimum value of
y = 2 − 4x − 2x² ?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2
32. Probability
If the probability of death is q and the probability of survival is p, find the probability of one death and one survival in an accident involving two persons.
A. p/q
B. pq
C. p − q
D. p + q
33. Number Bases
Convert 137₁₀ to base 5.
A. 1022₅
B. 2102₅
C. 2210₅
D. 2201₅
34. Variation
P is partly constant and partly varies as Q.
If P = 32 when Q = 16 and P = 20 when Q = 12, find P when Q = 28.
A. 68
B. 64
C. 66
D. 62
35. Permutation
In how many ways can the letters of the word HANDIER be arranged?
A. 3080
B. 2650
C. 4050
D. 5040
36. Indices
Find the value of t for which
(1/2)^(t−1) = 64
A. −6
B. −5
C. −7
D. −4
37. Number Bases
If 54₁₀ = X₄, find the value of X correct to 3 digits.
A. 132₄
B. 312₄
C. 123₄
D. 321₄
38. Integration
Integrate the function
y = 3x² + 2x − 5
with respect to x.
A. x³ + x² − 5x + C
B. x² + 2x² − 5x + C
C. x² + 2x − 5 + C
D. x³ + 2x − 5 + C
39. Standard Form
Express
\sqrt{0.16} × 10^4
A. 2 × 10⁻¹²
B. 2 × 10²
C. 2 × 10⁻²
D. 2 × 10¹²
40. Inequality
Solve:
x² + 3x − 4 ≤ 0
A. −4 ≥ x ≥ 1
B. 4 ≤ x ≤ −1
C. 4 ≥ x ≥ 1
D. −4 ≤ x ≤ 1
41. Surds
Solve for y in
\sqrt{75} − \sqrt{12} + \sqrt{27} = \sqrt{y}
A. √43
B. √53
C. √33
D. √63
42. Trigonometry
If cos θ = x/y, find tan θ in terms of x and y.
A. √(y² − x²) / x
B. √(y² + x²) / x
C. (y + x) / √x
D. √(x² − y²) / x
43. Vectors
Given
P = (1, 2, 3, −5)
Q = (3, 1, −7, 2)
Find P + 2Q.
A. (7, 4, −11, −1)
B. (7, 4, −11, −9)
C. (−7, −4, 11, −1)
D. (11, 4, −7, −1)
44. Statistics
The table above shows the weights of twelve mathematics students.
Find the modal weight.
A. 54
B. 58
C. 60
D. 62
45. Binary Operation
A binary operation * is defined on the set
X = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
as a * b = ab + a + b.
Compute 1 * 3.
A. 14
B. 4
C. 7
D. 5
46. Bearings
A bird flies from a tree P on a bearing of N60°E to a building Q, a distance of 200 km.
It then flies to another tree R on a bearing of S30°E.
Tree R is directly east of tree P.
Calculate the distance from the building to tree R.
A. 200√3
B. 100√3
C. 100
D. 200/√3
❤1
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*📚 50 ENGLISH JAMB PAST QUESTIONS 📝🧑💻 🔥 🔥*
*SECTION A: LEXIS & STRUCTURE*
1. The committee has __ its decision.
A. took
B. taken
C. taking
D. takes
2. Neither the teacher nor the students __ present.
A. was
B. were
C. is
D. be
3. She insisted __ paying the bill.
A. in
B. on
C. at
D. for
4. The man was accused __ stealing.
A. for
B. with
C. of
D. by
5. If I __ you, I would apologize.
A. am
B. was
C. were
D. be
6. The news __ shocking.
A. are
B. were
C. is
D. be
7. He is good __ Mathematics.
A. in
B. at
C. on
D. with
8. She has lived here __ five years.
A. since
B. for
C. by
D. from
9. The teacher advised us __ harder.
A. work
B. working
C. to work
D. worked
10. I prefer tea __ coffee.
A. than
B. to
C. from
D. over
*SECTION B: SPELLING*
11. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A. Priviledge
B. Privilege
C. Privillage
D. Privelege
12.
A. Accomodation
B. Accommodation
C. Acommodation
D. Accommudation
13.
A. Separate
B. Seperate
C. Sepparate
D. Separrate
14.
A. Occassion
B. Ocassion
C. Occasion
D. Ocasion
15.
A. Embarrasment
B. Embarrassment
C. Embarassment
D. Embarrasement
*SECTION C: ANTONYMS*
16. The manager was generous.
A. Kind
B. Stingy
C. Polite
D. Friendly
17. The road was narrow.
A. Broad
B. Thin
C. Small
D. Tiny
18. The teacher was harsh.
A. Gentle
B. Strict
C. Wicked
D. Cruel
19. The task was simple.
A. Easy
B. Hard
C. Light
D. Clear
20. The boy was timid.
A. Brave
B. Shy
C. Weak
D. Lazy
*SECTION D:SYNONYMS*
21. The man was furious.
A. Angry
B. Happy
C. Calm
D. Sad
22. She was reluctant.
A. Willing
B. Unwilling
C. Ready
D. Active
23. The speech was brief.
A. Long
B. Short
C. Boring
D. Loud
24. He is intelligent.
A. Dull
B. Clever
C. Weak
D. Slow
25. The child was exhausted.
A. Tired
B. Energetic
C. Strong
D. Active
*SECTION E: IDIOMS & EXPRESSIONS*
26. To “spill the beans” means
A. Cook food
B. Reveal a secret
C. Make noise
D. Cry loudly
27. “Once in a blue moon” means
A. Every day
B. Very often
C. Rarely
D. Sometimes
28. “Hit the nail on the head” means
A. Miss the point
B. Be correct
C. Be confused
D. Make noise
29. “At daggers drawn” means
A. Friendly
B. In agreement
C. In conflict
D. Happy
30. “Break the ice” means
A. Destroy something
B. Start a conversation
C. End a meeting
D. Fight
*SECTION F: TENSE & AGREEMENT*
31. She __ to school yesterday.
A. go
B. goes
C. went
D. gone
32. They __ playing football.
A. is
B. are
C. was
D. be
33. The students __ writing the exam.
A. is
B. was
C. are
D. be
34. One of the boys __ absent.
A. are
B. were
C. is
D. be
35. My father, together with his friends, __ arrived.
A. have
B. has
C. are
D. were
*SECTION G: STRESS & PRONUNCIATION*
36. Choose the word with stress on the first syllable.
A. Police
B. About
C. Doctor
D. Again
37.
A. Begin
B. Enjoy
C. Teacher
D. Control
38.
A. Hotel
B. Mother
C. Result
D. Support
39.
A. Advice
B. Table
C. Complete
D. Provide
40.
A. Balloon
B. Country
C. Maintain
D. Police
https://chat.whatsapp.com/EVDNFglWB8E0eNL8uHg7pS?mode=gi_t
*SECTION H: FILL IN THE GAP*
41. The boy is afraid __ dogs.
A. for
B. with
C. of
D. by
42. She is married __ a doctor.
A. with
B. to
C. by
D. for
43. He succeeded __ his hard work.
A. because
B. due to
C. despite
D. although
44. We arrived __ the airport early.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. by
45. She apologized __ being late.
A. of
B. for
C. with
D. by
*SECTION I: COMPREHENSION-TYPE GRAMMAR*
46. Hardly had he arrived __ it started raining.
A. than
B. when
C. then
D. that
47. No sooner had she left __ he arrived.
A. when
B. than
C. that
D. then
48. I look forward to __ from you.
A. hear
B. hearing
C. heard
D. hears
49. He is the tallest boy in the class, __?
A. isn’t he
B. is he
C. wasn’t he
D. doesn’t he
50. Let’s go home, __?
A. shall we
B. will we
C. can we
D. do we
https://chat.whatsapp.com/EVDNFglWB8E0eNL8uHg7pS?mode=gi_t
*SECTION A: LEXIS & STRUCTURE*
1. The committee has __ its decision.
A. took
B. taken
C. taking
D. takes
2. Neither the teacher nor the students __ present.
A. was
B. were
C. is
D. be
3. She insisted __ paying the bill.
A. in
B. on
C. at
D. for
4. The man was accused __ stealing.
A. for
B. with
C. of
D. by
5. If I __ you, I would apologize.
A. am
B. was
C. were
D. be
6. The news __ shocking.
A. are
B. were
C. is
D. be
7. He is good __ Mathematics.
A. in
B. at
C. on
D. with
8. She has lived here __ five years.
A. since
B. for
C. by
D. from
9. The teacher advised us __ harder.
A. work
B. working
C. to work
D. worked
10. I prefer tea __ coffee.
A. than
B. to
C. from
D. over
*SECTION B: SPELLING*
11. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A. Priviledge
B. Privilege
C. Privillage
D. Privelege
12.
A. Accomodation
B. Accommodation
C. Acommodation
D. Accommudation
13.
A. Separate
B. Seperate
C. Sepparate
D. Separrate
14.
A. Occassion
B. Ocassion
C. Occasion
D. Ocasion
15.
A. Embarrasment
B. Embarrassment
C. Embarassment
D. Embarrasement
*SECTION C: ANTONYMS*
16. The manager was generous.
A. Kind
B. Stingy
C. Polite
D. Friendly
17. The road was narrow.
A. Broad
B. Thin
C. Small
D. Tiny
18. The teacher was harsh.
A. Gentle
B. Strict
C. Wicked
D. Cruel
19. The task was simple.
A. Easy
B. Hard
C. Light
D. Clear
20. The boy was timid.
A. Brave
B. Shy
C. Weak
D. Lazy
*SECTION D:SYNONYMS*
21. The man was furious.
A. Angry
B. Happy
C. Calm
D. Sad
22. She was reluctant.
A. Willing
B. Unwilling
C. Ready
D. Active
23. The speech was brief.
A. Long
B. Short
C. Boring
D. Loud
24. He is intelligent.
A. Dull
B. Clever
C. Weak
D. Slow
25. The child was exhausted.
A. Tired
B. Energetic
C. Strong
D. Active
*SECTION E: IDIOMS & EXPRESSIONS*
26. To “spill the beans” means
A. Cook food
B. Reveal a secret
C. Make noise
D. Cry loudly
27. “Once in a blue moon” means
A. Every day
B. Very often
C. Rarely
D. Sometimes
28. “Hit the nail on the head” means
A. Miss the point
B. Be correct
C. Be confused
D. Make noise
29. “At daggers drawn” means
A. Friendly
B. In agreement
C. In conflict
D. Happy
30. “Break the ice” means
A. Destroy something
B. Start a conversation
C. End a meeting
D. Fight
*SECTION F: TENSE & AGREEMENT*
31. She __ to school yesterday.
A. go
B. goes
C. went
D. gone
32. They __ playing football.
A. is
B. are
C. was
D. be
33. The students __ writing the exam.
A. is
B. was
C. are
D. be
34. One of the boys __ absent.
A. are
B. were
C. is
D. be
35. My father, together with his friends, __ arrived.
A. have
B. has
C. are
D. were
*SECTION G: STRESS & PRONUNCIATION*
36. Choose the word with stress on the first syllable.
A. Police
B. About
C. Doctor
D. Again
37.
A. Begin
B. Enjoy
C. Teacher
D. Control
38.
A. Hotel
B. Mother
C. Result
D. Support
39.
A. Advice
B. Table
C. Complete
D. Provide
40.
A. Balloon
B. Country
C. Maintain
D. Police
https://chat.whatsapp.com/EVDNFglWB8E0eNL8uHg7pS?mode=gi_t
*SECTION H: FILL IN THE GAP*
41. The boy is afraid __ dogs.
A. for
B. with
C. of
D. by
42. She is married __ a doctor.
A. with
B. to
C. by
D. for
43. He succeeded __ his hard work.
A. because
B. due to
C. despite
D. although
44. We arrived __ the airport early.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. by
45. She apologized __ being late.
A. of
B. for
C. with
D. by
*SECTION I: COMPREHENSION-TYPE GRAMMAR*
46. Hardly had he arrived __ it started raining.
A. than
B. when
C. then
D. that
47. No sooner had she left __ he arrived.
A. when
B. than
C. that
D. then
48. I look forward to __ from you.
A. hear
B. hearing
C. heard
D. hears
49. He is the tallest boy in the class, __?
A. isn’t he
B. is he
C. wasn’t he
D. doesn’t he
50. Let’s go home, __?
A. shall we
B. will we
C. can we
D. do we
https://chat.whatsapp.com/EVDNFglWB8E0eNL8uHg7pS?mode=gi_t
❤11
📘 JAMB CRS QUESTIONS (OBJECTIVE TEST)
1. Who built the ark according to the Bible?
A. Abraham
B. Moses
C. Noah
D. David
2. God called Abraham to leave his country and go to
A. Egypt
B. Canaan
C. Babylon
D. Nineveh
3. The sign of God’s covenant with Abraham was
A. rainbow
B. circumcision
C. sacrifice
D. Passover
4. Joseph was sold into slavery by his
A. cousins
B. brothers
C. friends
D. neighbours
5. The Israelites spent how many years in Egypt?
A. 130 years
B. 215 years
C. 430 years
D. 600 years
6. Who led the Israelites out of Egypt?
A. Joshua
B. Aaron
C. Moses
D. Caleb
7. The Ten Commandments were given on Mount
A. Carmel
B. Horeb
C. Sinai
D. Zion
8. The first king of Israel was
A. David
B. Saul
C. Solomon
D. Samuel
9. David killed Goliath using a
A. sword
B. spear
C. sling and stone
D. bow and arrow
10. Solomon was famous for his
A. strength
B. wisdom
C. height
D. wealth only
11. The temple in Jerusalem was built by
A. Saul
B. David
C. Solomon
D. Hezekiah
12. Elijah challenged the prophets of Baal on Mount
A. Zion
B. Carmel
C. Sinai
D. Horeb
13. The prophet who married Gomer was
A. Amos
B. Hosea
C. Isaiah
D. Micah
14. The “suffering servant” prophecy is found in
A. Jeremiah
B. Isaiah
C. Ezekiel
D. Daniel
15. John the Baptist prepared the way for
A. Peter
B. Paul
C. Jesus
D. James
16. Jesus was born in
A. Nazareth
B. Bethlehem
C. Jerusalem
D. Samaria
17. The mother of Jesus was
A. Martha
B. Mary
C. Elizabeth
D. Anna
18. Jesus turned water into wine at
A. Cana
B. Galilee
C. Jerusalem
D. Bethany
19. The sermon on the mount is recorded mainly in
A. Matthew
B. Mark
C. Luke
D. John
20. The Lord’s Prayer begins with
A. Give us today
B. Our Father
C. Hallowed be
D. Thy kingdom
21. Judas Iscariot betrayed Jesus for
A. 10 pieces of silver
B. 20 pieces of silver
C. 30 pieces of silver
D. 40 pieces of silver
22. Jesus was crucified at
A. Golgotha
B. Nazareth
C. Jericho
D. Emmaus
23. Jesus rose from the dead on the
A. first day of the week
B. second day
C. third day of the week
D. Sabbath day
24. The disciple known as the “doubter” was
A. Peter
B. Thomas
C. John
D. Andrew
25. The early Christian church began on the day of
A. Passover
B. Pentecost
C. Atonement
D. Sabbath
26. The Holy Spirit descended on the apostles as
A. rain
B. fire
C. wind and fire
D. cloud only
27. The first Christian martyr was
A. Paul
B. Stephen
C. Barnabas
D. Philip
28. Saul was converted on the road to
A. Jerusalem
B. Damascus
C. Antioch
D. Rome
29. Paul and Barnabas were first sent out from
A. Jerusalem
B. Antioch
C. Ephesus
D. Corinth
30. The fruit of the Spirit includes
A. hatred
B. jealousy
C. love
D. pride
31. The golden rule states
A. love your enemies
B. do unto others as you would have them do unto you
C. pray always
D. give to the poor
32. The parable of the Good Samaritan teaches
A. obedience
B. neighbourliness
C. fasting
D. humility
33. Jesus fed five thousand people with
A. five loaves and two fish
B. two loaves and five fish
C. seven loaves only
D. bread only
34. The tax collector who climbed the sycamore tree was
A. Levi
B. Zacchaeus
C. Matthew
D. Simon
35. The book of Revelation was written by
A. Peter
B. Paul
C. John
D. James
36. The greatest commandment is to
A. fast always
B. love God and neighbour
C. give offerings
D. keep the Sabbath only
37. The disciples were first called Christians at
A. Jerusalem
B. Antioch
C. Rome
D. Corinth
38. Jesus calmed the storm on the
A. River Jordan
B. Sea of Galilee
C. Red Sea
D. Mediterranean Sea
39. The transfiguration of Jesus took place on a
A. plain
B. river
C. mountain
D. desert
40. The two disciples on the road after resurrection were going to
A. Bethany
B. Emmaus
C. Jericho
D. Samaria
41. The Beatitudes are found in
A. Matthew 5
B. Mark 3
C. Luke 10
D. John 1
42. The parable of the prodigal son teaches about
A. forgiveness
B. judgment
C. war
D. wealth
43. Jesus washed the disciples’ feet to teach
A. power
B. humility and service
C. authority
D. fasting
1. Who built the ark according to the Bible?
A. Abraham
B. Moses
C. Noah
D. David
2. God called Abraham to leave his country and go to
A. Egypt
B. Canaan
C. Babylon
D. Nineveh
3. The sign of God’s covenant with Abraham was
A. rainbow
B. circumcision
C. sacrifice
D. Passover
4. Joseph was sold into slavery by his
A. cousins
B. brothers
C. friends
D. neighbours
5. The Israelites spent how many years in Egypt?
A. 130 years
B. 215 years
C. 430 years
D. 600 years
6. Who led the Israelites out of Egypt?
A. Joshua
B. Aaron
C. Moses
D. Caleb
7. The Ten Commandments were given on Mount
A. Carmel
B. Horeb
C. Sinai
D. Zion
8. The first king of Israel was
A. David
B. Saul
C. Solomon
D. Samuel
9. David killed Goliath using a
A. sword
B. spear
C. sling and stone
D. bow and arrow
10. Solomon was famous for his
A. strength
B. wisdom
C. height
D. wealth only
11. The temple in Jerusalem was built by
A. Saul
B. David
C. Solomon
D. Hezekiah
12. Elijah challenged the prophets of Baal on Mount
A. Zion
B. Carmel
C. Sinai
D. Horeb
13. The prophet who married Gomer was
A. Amos
B. Hosea
C. Isaiah
D. Micah
14. The “suffering servant” prophecy is found in
A. Jeremiah
B. Isaiah
C. Ezekiel
D. Daniel
15. John the Baptist prepared the way for
A. Peter
B. Paul
C. Jesus
D. James
16. Jesus was born in
A. Nazareth
B. Bethlehem
C. Jerusalem
D. Samaria
17. The mother of Jesus was
A. Martha
B. Mary
C. Elizabeth
D. Anna
18. Jesus turned water into wine at
A. Cana
B. Galilee
C. Jerusalem
D. Bethany
19. The sermon on the mount is recorded mainly in
A. Matthew
B. Mark
C. Luke
D. John
20. The Lord’s Prayer begins with
A. Give us today
B. Our Father
C. Hallowed be
D. Thy kingdom
21. Judas Iscariot betrayed Jesus for
A. 10 pieces of silver
B. 20 pieces of silver
C. 30 pieces of silver
D. 40 pieces of silver
22. Jesus was crucified at
A. Golgotha
B. Nazareth
C. Jericho
D. Emmaus
23. Jesus rose from the dead on the
A. first day of the week
B. second day
C. third day of the week
D. Sabbath day
24. The disciple known as the “doubter” was
A. Peter
B. Thomas
C. John
D. Andrew
25. The early Christian church began on the day of
A. Passover
B. Pentecost
C. Atonement
D. Sabbath
26. The Holy Spirit descended on the apostles as
A. rain
B. fire
C. wind and fire
D. cloud only
27. The first Christian martyr was
A. Paul
B. Stephen
C. Barnabas
D. Philip
28. Saul was converted on the road to
A. Jerusalem
B. Damascus
C. Antioch
D. Rome
29. Paul and Barnabas were first sent out from
A. Jerusalem
B. Antioch
C. Ephesus
D. Corinth
30. The fruit of the Spirit includes
A. hatred
B. jealousy
C. love
D. pride
31. The golden rule states
A. love your enemies
B. do unto others as you would have them do unto you
C. pray always
D. give to the poor
32. The parable of the Good Samaritan teaches
A. obedience
B. neighbourliness
C. fasting
D. humility
33. Jesus fed five thousand people with
A. five loaves and two fish
B. two loaves and five fish
C. seven loaves only
D. bread only
34. The tax collector who climbed the sycamore tree was
A. Levi
B. Zacchaeus
C. Matthew
D. Simon
35. The book of Revelation was written by
A. Peter
B. Paul
C. John
D. James
36. The greatest commandment is to
A. fast always
B. love God and neighbour
C. give offerings
D. keep the Sabbath only
37. The disciples were first called Christians at
A. Jerusalem
B. Antioch
C. Rome
D. Corinth
38. Jesus calmed the storm on the
A. River Jordan
B. Sea of Galilee
C. Red Sea
D. Mediterranean Sea
39. The transfiguration of Jesus took place on a
A. plain
B. river
C. mountain
D. desert
40. The two disciples on the road after resurrection were going to
A. Bethany
B. Emmaus
C. Jericho
D. Samaria
41. The Beatitudes are found in
A. Matthew 5
B. Mark 3
C. Luke 10
D. John 1
42. The parable of the prodigal son teaches about
A. forgiveness
B. judgment
C. war
D. wealth
43. Jesus washed the disciples’ feet to teach
A. power
B. humility and service
C. authority
D. fasting
❤2
44. The high priest who tried Jesus was
A. Caiaphas
B. Annas
C. Herod
D. Pilate
45. Pontius Pilate was the
A. high priest
B. Roman governor
C. Pharisee
D. scribe
46. The new covenant was sealed with Jesus’
A. teachings
B. blood
C. miracles
D. birth
47. The shortest verse in the Bible is
A. Rejoice always
B. Jesus wept
C. Pray without ceasing
D. God is love
48. The armour of God teaching is found in
A. Romans
B. Ephesians
C. Galatians
D. Hebrews
49. Faith is defined in Hebrews 11:1 as
A. hope only
B. evidence of things not seen
C. prayer
D. love
50. The main mission of the Church is to
A. build houses
B. preach the gospel
C. make laws
D. collect taxes
A. Caiaphas
B. Annas
C. Herod
D. Pilate
45. Pontius Pilate was the
A. high priest
B. Roman governor
C. Pharisee
D. scribe
46. The new covenant was sealed with Jesus’
A. teachings
B. blood
C. miracles
D. birth
47. The shortest verse in the Bible is
A. Rejoice always
B. Jesus wept
C. Pray without ceasing
D. God is love
48. The armour of God teaching is found in
A. Romans
B. Ephesians
C. Galatians
D. Hebrews
49. Faith is defined in Hebrews 11:1 as
A. hope only
B. evidence of things not seen
C. prayer
D. love
50. The main mission of the Church is to
A. build houses
B. preach the gospel
C. make laws
D. collect taxes
WAEC 2026 MIDNIGHT QUESTION AND ANSWER PAYMENTS!!!.
✅ALL SUBJECTS(COURSES)+PRACTICAL : ₦16,500
======================================
✅ALL SCIENCE SUBJECTS : ₦8,500
==========================
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==============================
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http://wa.me/+2349137409382.
✅ALL SUBJECTS(COURSES)+PRACTICAL : ₦16,500
======================================
✅ALL SCIENCE SUBJECTS : ₦8,500
==========================
✅ALL ART SUBJECTS : ₦7,500
=======================
✅ALL COMMERCIAL SUBJECTS : ₦ 7,500
==============================
PAY INTO THE ACCOUNT BELOW
ACCOUNT NO:9056863938
ACCOUNT NAME: BLESSING
BANK: PALM PAY BANK /OPAY
Pls drop payment proves after payment done
===================================
WHATSAPP EXAMKEY 09056863938 / 09137409382 ONLY FOR YOUR PAYMENT!!!.
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP 1👇
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
http://wa.me/+2349056863938
TEXT ME NOW ON WHATSAPP 2👇
http://wa.me/+2349137409382
http://wa.me/+2349137409382.
❤1
2026 JAMBITES STUDENT'S!!!
U CAN MESSAGE ME FOR JAMB ASSISTANT
*280+ TO 380+ JAMB SCORE 2026*
*JUST 39 DAYS LEFT TO MAIN JAMB, YOUR DECISION WILL DETERMINE FROM NOW......DM EXAMKEY CEO FOR JAMB ASSISTANT!!!!*
*TELL YOUR PARENTS ABOUT US, DON'T LET YOUR SON FAIL JAMB AND REWRITE AGAIN*
*WHATSAPP 09056863938 OR 09137409382 ONLY.*
U CAN MESSAGE ME FOR JAMB ASSISTANT
*280+ TO 380+ JAMB SCORE 2026*
*JUST 39 DAYS LEFT TO MAIN JAMB, YOUR DECISION WILL DETERMINE FROM NOW......DM EXAMKEY CEO FOR JAMB ASSISTANT!!!!*
*TELL YOUR PARENTS ABOUT US, DON'T LET YOUR SON FAIL JAMB AND REWRITE AGAIN*
*WHATSAPP 09056863938 OR 09137409382 ONLY.*
*BIOLOGY JAMB CBT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 📚📝💯🧠*
1) Which of the following is an example of a microorganism in action as a disease vector?
A. Fungi decomposing dead plant material
B. Mosquito transmitting malaria
C. Bacteria causing food poisoning
D. Algae producing oxygen through photosynthesis
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of cells related to irritability?
A. Ability to respond to stimuli
B. Ability to synthesize proteins
C. Ability to generate energy
D. Ability to replicate DNA
3) The membrane around the vacuole is known as
A. Elaioplast
B. Amyloplast
C. Tonoplast
D. Cytoplast
4) Which of the following is evidence of evolution?
A. All of the above.
B. Similarities in embryonic development
C. Fossils of extinct organisms
D. Homologous structures in different species
5) Which of the following is an example of an adaptation for survival in social insects?
A. Migration to warmer climates
B. Production of venom for defense
C. Formation of complex caste systems
D. Hibernation during winter months
6) Which of the following is NOT a part of the alimentary canal?
A. Oesophagus
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
7) Which of the following is an evolutionary trend commonly observed in organisms?
A. Decreased complexity over time
B. Increased dependence on external resources
C. Increased genetic diversity within populations
D. Decreased adaptation to the environment
8) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kingdom Plantae?
A. Presence of chloroplasts
B. Ability to perform photosynthesis
C. Lack of cell walls
D. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
9) A biome characterized by hot summer, warm winter and treeless vegetation is
A. Steppe grasslands
B. Temperate deserts
C. Savannah grassland
D. Tropical deserts
10) Which of the following is an example of physiological variation in organisms?
A. Variation in blood pressure among individuals
B. Variation in beak shape among finches
C. Differences in fur color in rabbits
D. Variation in leaf shape in plants
11) Which of the following are components of the skeletal system in humans?
A. Cartilage and blood vessels
B. Ligaments and tendons
C. Muscles and nerves
D. Bones and joints
SHARE WITH YOUR EVERYONE, FRIENDS, CLASSMATE AND GROUPS ❤️
12) Which of the following represents an example of ecological management and conservation through a biological association?
A. Construction of a dam for hydroelectric power
B. Introduction of an invasive species for pest control
C. Clear-cutting of a forest for timber extraction
D. Establishment of marine protected areas
13) The term cell was given by
A. Robert Hooke
B. Schwann
C. De Bary
D. Tatum
14) Which of the following is the primary organ involved in gas exchange during respiration in humans?
A. Diaphragm
B. Bronchi
C. Lungs
D. Trachea
15) Which gland is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pituitary gland
C. Pancreas
D. Adrenal gland
16) Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presences of:
I. swim bladder
II. air bladder
III. air sacs
IV. air in spongy bones
A. II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct
17) In monohybrid inheritance, if an organism carries two different alleles for a particular gene, it is called:
A. Homozygous
B. Dominant
C. Heterozygous
D. Recessive
18) What is the tissue responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant?
A. Xylem
B. Epidermis
C. Parenchyma
D. Phloem
19) Which of the following is an example of an abiotic ecological factor?
A. Temperature
B. Competition
C. Predation
D. Symbiosis
20) Which of the following processes is involved in the reproduction of developing organisms?
A. Budding
B. Germination
C. Fertilization
D. Pollination
21) Behavioral adaptation for dealing with a hot climate could include
A. Hibernating during the hottest part of the day
B. Large scales on the back of a lizard
C. Feeding during the hottest part of the day
D. A small kidney to conserve water
1) Which of the following is an example of a microorganism in action as a disease vector?
A. Fungi decomposing dead plant material
B. Mosquito transmitting malaria
C. Bacteria causing food poisoning
D. Algae producing oxygen through photosynthesis
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of cells related to irritability?
A. Ability to respond to stimuli
B. Ability to synthesize proteins
C. Ability to generate energy
D. Ability to replicate DNA
3) The membrane around the vacuole is known as
A. Elaioplast
B. Amyloplast
C. Tonoplast
D. Cytoplast
4) Which of the following is evidence of evolution?
A. All of the above.
B. Similarities in embryonic development
C. Fossils of extinct organisms
D. Homologous structures in different species
5) Which of the following is an example of an adaptation for survival in social insects?
A. Migration to warmer climates
B. Production of venom for defense
C. Formation of complex caste systems
D. Hibernation during winter months
6) Which of the following is NOT a part of the alimentary canal?
A. Oesophagus
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
7) Which of the following is an evolutionary trend commonly observed in organisms?
A. Decreased complexity over time
B. Increased dependence on external resources
C. Increased genetic diversity within populations
D. Decreased adaptation to the environment
8) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kingdom Plantae?
A. Presence of chloroplasts
B. Ability to perform photosynthesis
C. Lack of cell walls
D. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
9) A biome characterized by hot summer, warm winter and treeless vegetation is
A. Steppe grasslands
B. Temperate deserts
C. Savannah grassland
D. Tropical deserts
10) Which of the following is an example of physiological variation in organisms?
A. Variation in blood pressure among individuals
B. Variation in beak shape among finches
C. Differences in fur color in rabbits
D. Variation in leaf shape in plants
11) Which of the following are components of the skeletal system in humans?
A. Cartilage and blood vessels
B. Ligaments and tendons
C. Muscles and nerves
D. Bones and joints
SHARE WITH YOUR EVERYONE, FRIENDS, CLASSMATE AND GROUPS ❤️
12) Which of the following represents an example of ecological management and conservation through a biological association?
A. Construction of a dam for hydroelectric power
B. Introduction of an invasive species for pest control
C. Clear-cutting of a forest for timber extraction
D. Establishment of marine protected areas
13) The term cell was given by
A. Robert Hooke
B. Schwann
C. De Bary
D. Tatum
14) Which of the following is the primary organ involved in gas exchange during respiration in humans?
A. Diaphragm
B. Bronchi
C. Lungs
D. Trachea
15) Which gland is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pituitary gland
C. Pancreas
D. Adrenal gland
16) Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presences of:
I. swim bladder
II. air bladder
III. air sacs
IV. air in spongy bones
A. II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct
17) In monohybrid inheritance, if an organism carries two different alleles for a particular gene, it is called:
A. Homozygous
B. Dominant
C. Heterozygous
D. Recessive
18) What is the tissue responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant?
A. Xylem
B. Epidermis
C. Parenchyma
D. Phloem
19) Which of the following is an example of an abiotic ecological factor?
A. Temperature
B. Competition
C. Predation
D. Symbiosis
20) Which of the following processes is involved in the reproduction of developing organisms?
A. Budding
B. Germination
C. Fertilization
D. Pollination
21) Behavioral adaptation for dealing with a hot climate could include
A. Hibernating during the hottest part of the day
B. Large scales on the back of a lizard
C. Feeding during the hottest part of the day
D. A small kidney to conserve water
❤3