*3️⃣0️⃣ QUESTIONS FROM THE LEKKI HEADMASTER WITH ANSWERS– CHAPTER THREE*✅

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1. Sola was formerly a
A. Mathematics teacher
B. English teacher
C. Guidance counsellor
D. Home Economics teacher✅

2. In the UK, landlords usually
A. demand two years’ rent in advance
B. insist on yearly payment only
C. allow tenants to pay as they live✅
D. collect rent weekly

3. Bepo preferred hourly payment because it
A. reduced taxes
B. guaranteed promotion
C. allowed flexible work schedules✅
D. increased pension benefits

4. Akindele migrated to the US at the age of
A. 55✅
B. 50
C. 51
D. 60

5. Betty once had a seizure and Sola called 991 and in less than ___ minutes ambulances arrived
A. 5 minutes ✅
B. 10 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 4 minutes

6. Bepo learnt that working four times a week could fetch up to
A. $1,200 monthly
B. $1,800 monthly
C. $2,000 monthly
D. $2,400 monthly✅

7. Riike was able to buy two houses in Ibadan within
A. three years✅
B. two years
C. four years
D. five years

8. The proverb *"_oga ta, oga o ta, owo alaaru a pe_"* suggests that
A. employers always suffer losses
B. employees are paid regardless of the employer's profit✅
C. business owners earn more than workers
D. trade is unpredictable

9. As a barber abroad, one could earn about
A. $50 per head
B. $80 per head
C. $100 per head✅
D. $150 per head

10. Jare left his banking job in Nigeria to
A. study abroad
B. drive a cab
C. care for an old couple✅
D. work in a hospital

11. The United States was referred to in the text as
A. The Promised Land
B. The Golden Nation
C. The Land of Dollars
D. God’s Own Country✅

12. Mr. Nku disappeared after taking a loan of
A. N1 million
B. N2 million✅
C. N3 million
D. N4 million

13. Bepo became more interested in stories about foreign countries after he
A. lost his job at Stardom
B. decided to relocate to the UK✅
C. quarrelled with his wife
D. was suspended from work

14. Hope’s plan failed because
A. he lost his admission
B. his wife stopped supporting him✅
C. he was deported
D. he became ill

15. Skilled work was considered
A. irrelevant abroad
B. the worst option for migrants
C. suitable only for women
D. one of the best options abroad✅

16. Because of high rent in London, Sola and her husband settled in
A. London
B. Liverpool
C. Leeds
D. Manchester✅

17. The academic who returned empty-handed was found guilty of
A. fraud
B. theft
C. bigamy✅
D. tax evasion

18. Up to how many doctors were said to migrate annually from the country?
A. 500 out of 5,000
B. 1,000 out of 3,000✅
C. 2,000 out of 4,000
D. 3,000 out of 6,000

19. Many immigrants forget that abroad they will
A. earn only in dollars
B. receive free accommodation
C. pay taxes
D. spend in dollars or pounds✅

20. Nike and Kike enjoyed
A. free primary and secondary education✅
B. free university education
C. free postgraduate education
D. private tutoring only

21. In the UK, remuneration may be paid
A. yearly only
B. monthly only
C. hourly, daily, weekly or monthly✅
D. quarterly

22. Those who borrowed money to travel abroad and never returned were described as
A. classical rogues✅
B. adventurers
C. patriots
D. pioneers

23. Sola eventually secured a job that could fetch her up to
A. £150 daily
B. £180 daily
C. £250 daily
D. £200 daily✅

24. Their two-bedroom apartment in Manchester cost
A. £500 monthly
B. £650 monthly✅
C. £800 monthly
D. £1,000 monthly


25. Akindele’s first job in the US was
A. teaching
B. nursing
C. taxi driving
D. freight loading✅

26. According to Bepo’s friend in the USA, one could earn between
A. $50 and $100 daily
B. $100 and $120 daily
C. $150 and $250 daily✅
D. $300 and $500 daily

27. By rail, the journey from Manchester to London takes about
A. two hours ✅
B. one hour
C. three hours
D. four hours

28. Sola and her husband had to borrow about __ before travelling.
A. N2 million
B. N3 million
C. N4 million✅
D. N5 million

29. When Sola called 911, the emergency responders arrived with _
A. two ambulances and two cars
B. one ambulance and two cars
C. one ambulance and a car
D. two ambulances and a car✅

30. Akindele emphasised that in America
A. jobs are easy to secure
B. age determines salary
C. you earn without stress
D. you must work hard for every dollar✅


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*THE LEKKI HEADMASTER JAMB NOVEL QUESTIONS📚📝✅*

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1
*Why did the director of "Beesway Group of School" claim the ritual involving the cow was necessary?*

A. To pray for his late father who gave him the land
B. To bring in more pupils to the school
C. To appease the parents who had raised complaints
D. To conduct a purification ceremony for the school

2
*What led to the closure of the school Bepo started?*

A. Poor road conditions in the neighbourhood
B. Parents' dissatisfaction with the curriculum
C. A failed spiritual ritual to attract more pupils
D. Mismanagement of school funds

3
*What was the cost of the form for the position of Head Boy or Head Girl in the school election at Stardom?*

A. N25,000
B. N40,000
C. N50,000
D. N60,000

4
*What inappropriate remark did Banky make during Speech Day?*

A. Tosh was unqualified for the position
B. Tosh was the son of an ex-convict
C. Tosh bribed his way into the election
D. Tosh lacked the required skill for the role

5
*Why was Tosh's father, Chief Ogba, detained for 36 months?*

A. He was an ex-convict for theft
B. He failed to pay a school debt
C. He was accused of fraud but acquitted later
D. He faced trial for alleged misappropriation

6
*Which of the following waterfalls is the highest in West Africa, according to the novel?*

A. Gurara Falls
B. Erin Ijesha Waterfalls
C. Ikogosi Warm Springs
D. Owu Waterfalls

7
*What is the primary reason Mr Bepo organises excursions for the students at Stardom?*

A. To give them a good grasp of their country before they all go abroad.
B. To promote Stardom as a school that values excursions
C. To prepare students for geography exams.
D. To encourage tourism in Nigeria

8
*Which of the following festivals have the students attended?*

i. Calabar Carnival

ii. Osun Oshogbo Festival

iii. Argungu Festival

iv. Abuja Carnival

A. i, ii, iii only
B. i and iv only
C. ii and iii only
D. i, ii, iii, iv

9
*How did Mr Bepo inspire students after they visited areas like Mushin and Ajegunle during their excursions?*

A. By promising to relocate them to better areas
B. By sharing stories of successful individuals who rose from slums
C. By discouraging them from visiting such areas again
D. By giving them motivational books about success

10
*What was the source of the name "Badagry", according to the novel?*

A. It was named after the Badagry River
B. It was derived from (agbadarigi)
C. It originated from a European explorer's name
D. It was named after a nearby slave market

11
*What does Mr Bepo mean by the term "new slavery"?*

A. Africans willingly move abroad for better opportunities
B. The continuation of slave trade in some regions
C. The exploitation of Africans by modern companies
D. Africans selling themselves into physical labour

12
*Why was Mr Bepo moved during his visit to the Black Heritage Museum?*

A. He felt nostalgic about Nigeria's history
B. He was impressed by the museum's architecture
C. He empathised with the suffering of slaves in the past
D. He remembered his ancestors were involved in slavery

13
*What is the meaning of the term "japa" as used in the novel?*

A. The struggle for financial independence
B. To travel abroad in search of better opportunities
C. To resist colonial influences inn modern times
D. To work as a slave in a foreign country

14
*Why was Mr Bepo initially reluctant to renew his passport?*

A. He had lost his passport
B. He was too busy with his teaching duties
C. He had heard about the hassles applicants were facing
D. He did not plan to travel abroad anytime soon

15
*How much was the official fee for a 10-year passport renewal (64 pages)?*

A. N250,000
B. N100,000
C. N1,000,000
D. N70,000

16
*Why did Bepo choose Ibadan for his passport renewal?*

A. It was closer to his location
B. He was advised that the process would be easier there
C. He had a friend who worked in immigration there
D. The fees were lower in Ibadan

17
*What can be inferred about Tai's role in the passport renewal process?*

A. He is a middleman exploiting applicants
B. He was a legitimate immigration officer
C. He was an honest businessman offering his services
D. He was unaware of the actual renewal process

18
*What does the phrase "in cahoots" most likely mean in the context of Tai and the immigration staff?*

A. In conflict with
B. Secretly collaborating with
C. Officially associated with
D. Unknowingly assisting

19
*Why does Mr Bepo delay his flight to the UK?*

A. The airline cancels his flight
B. He is required to attend a farewell celebration
C. He needs to finalise his resignation paperwork
D. He has a last-minute meeting with the MD

20
*What Yoruba adage does Mr Bepo recall after the debate at the farewell celebration?*

A. A wise man never leaves his work unfinished
B. The work of a teacher outlives their time
C. Success is not final; failure is not fatal
D. Even if the master carver retires, his carvings remain

21
*Why does Mr Bepo yell "Noooo!" during the drama club performance at the farewell celebration?*

A. He was disappointed with the dance
B. He is overwhelmed by memories of the Heritage Slave Museum
C. He feels the performance is disrespectful
D. He disagrees with the students' portrayal of history

22
*What was the farewell gift presented to Mr Bepo?*

A. A framed picture of the staff and students
B. A plaque commemorating his years of service
C. A cheque for $10,000
D. A plane ticket to his new destination

23
*At what time is Mr Bepo's flight to the UK scheduled to depart?*

A. 5:00pm
B. 10:00 pm
C. 1:00 pm
D. 8:00 pm

24
*Who offers to drive Mr Bepo to the airport?*

A. Mrs Grace Apeh
B. Mr Oyelana
C. Mr Ogunwale
D. The Stardom accountant

25
*What did Mr Bepo's wife insist he should pack for his trip to the UK?*

A. Locust beans, egusi, ground crayfish and dry snail
B. New clothes and electronics
C. Fruits and water
D. His passport and essential documents

26
*What is the primary setting of The Lekki Headmaster​​​​​​?*

A. Beesway Group of School
B. Stardom Schools
C. The Black Heritage Museum, Badagry
D. Mushin, Lagos

27
*Who is the protagonist of the novel?*

A. Mr Alabi
B. Mrs Grace Apeh
C. Mrs Ibidun Gloss
D. Mr Adewale Adebepo

28
*What is Mr Bepo's profession?*

A. A doctor
B. A principal
C. A businessman
D. A historian

29
*What is the main challenge that Mr Bepo faces in the novel?*

A. Convincing parents to enrol their children
B. Managing the school's finances
C. Balancing his career with pressure to migrate
D. Starting his own school

30
*What theme is predominantly explored in the novel?*

A. Betrayal
B. Political corruption
C. Love and relationships
D. Migration and identity

31
*Which teacher is known for the use of witty remarks in the novel?*

A. Mrs Ibidun Gloss
B. Mrs Grace Apeh
C. Mr Audu
D. Mr Amos

32
*Which two students have a rivalry that dates back to JSS 3?*

A. Banky and Tosh
B. Seri and Kemi
C. Ogba and Banky
D. Ogba and Tosh

33
*The novel explores the effects of migration under which term?*

A. Brain Drain
B. Japa Syndrome
C. Wanderlust
D. Exodus

34
*What led to the conflict during the prefect election speech?*

A. Banky insulted Tosh's father
B. Banky attempted to bribe the judges
C. Tosh's mom accused the school of favouritism
D. Bepo intervened in the voting process

35
*What significant historical location did the students visit in Badagry?*

A. First Storey Building
B. Slave Market
C. Point of No Return
D. All of the above

36
*What tourist attractions in Bauchi did the students explore?*

A. Ikogosi Warm Springs
B. Erin Ijesha Waterfalls
C. Arinta Waterfalls
D. Yakari Games Reserve

37
*What was the major challenge that Bepo faced during his NIN validation?*

A. Corruption among officials
B. Long queues
C. Poor networks
D. None of the above

38
*What performances during the send-off caused Bepo to become deeply emotional?*

A. The Bata dance
B. The Atilogwu dance
C. The Canoe dance
D. The Koroso dance

39
*What year was the Ikogosi Warm Sprigs discovered?*

A. 1745
B. 1820
C. 1852
D. 1901

40
*What lesson does the novel teach about migration?*

A. Migration should always be the last option
B. Migration brings mixed blessings and challenges
C. Migration guarantees success
D. Migration is a betrayal of one's roots

41
*What was Bepo's relationship with Mrs Ibidun Gloss?*

A. She was his supervisor
B. She was his rival
C. She deeply respected and appreciated his contributions
D. She criticised his decisions frequently

42
*What caused Mr Bepo's emotional breakdown during the school assembly?*

A. A student's rude behaviour
B. Financial troubles at the school
C. His upcoming relocation to the UK
D. A conflict with the MD

43
*What is the boarding fee per session at Stardom Schools?*

A. ₦150,000
B. ₦165,000
C. ₦250,000
D. ₦200,000

44
*Why was the boarding fee at Stardom Schools reduced?*

A. To attract more parents
B. To improve facilities
C. To meet government regulations
D. To reduce student lateness

45
*The theme central to the novel is*

A. The corruption in the Nigerian education system
B. The struggles of students in private schools
C. The decline of traditional Nigerian values
D. The challenges of migration and identity

46
*How does The Lekki Headmaster portray the issue of "Japa"?*

A. As a necessary step for career growth
B. As a personal and moral dilemma
C. As a privilege for the wealthy
D. As an easy decision for most Nigerians

47
*What is the central physical setting of the novel?*

A. Beesway Group of School
B. Black Heritage Museum, Badagry
C. Stardom Schools, Lagos
D. Murtala Muhammed Airport, Lagos

48
*Which setting in the novel serves as a point of psychological conflict for Bepo?"

A. The school assembly hall
B. Black Heritage Museum, Badagry
C. The Vice Principal's office
D. His home in Ikeja

49
*What narrative technique is commonly used in The Lekki Headmaster?*

A. Flashback
B. Myth
C. Foreshadowing
D. First-person narration

50
*What was Mr Bepo's long-term professional goal before considering migration?*

A. Becoming the MD of Stardom Schools
B. Starting his own school
C. Writing a book on educational reform
D. Retiring early and moving to his hometown

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*📘 CHEMISTRY JAMB PAST QUESTIONS*

1. The principle of column chromatography is based on the ability of the constituents to
A. move at different speeds in the column
B. dissolve in each other in the column
C. react with the solvent in the column
D. react with each other in the column


2. With conc. H₂SO₄ as catalyst:
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH → CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O
The reaction is
A. Esterification
B. Condensation
C. Saponification


3. Which statement is true about 2-methylpropane and butane?
A. They are not members of the same homologous series
B. They have the same boiling point
C. They have different number of carbon atoms
D. They have the same chemical properties


4. Two organic compounds K and L were treated with Fehling’s solution. K formed a brick-red precipitate while L was unaffected. K is an
A. alkanol
B. alkane
C. alkanal
D. alkanone


5. The number of isomers of C₄H₁₀ is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2


6. At 25°C and zymase as catalyst:
C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂ + energy
This reaction produces
A. propanol
B. butanol
C. methanol
D. ethanol


7. An organic compound has empirical formula CH₂O and vapour density 45. What is its molecular formula?
A. C₃H₇OH
B. C₂H₅OH
C. C₃H₆O₃
D. C₂H₄O₂


8. Which compound will undergo polymerization?
A. C₂H₄
B. C₂H₅COOH
C. C₂H₆
D. C₂H₅OH


9. The ability of carbon to form long chains is called
A. alkylation
B. acylation
C. catenation
D. carbonation


10. The constituent of baking powder that makes dough rise is
A. NaHCO₃
B. NaOH
C. Na₂CO₃
D. NaCl


11. Bronze is preferred to copper in making medals because it
A. is stronger
B. withstands low temperature
C. is lighter
D. has low tensile strength


12. The property of concentrated H₂SO₄ that makes it suitable for preparing HNO₃ is its
A. boiling point
B. density
C. oxidizing property
D. dehydrating property


13. In the laboratory preparation of oxygen, dry oxygen is collected over
A. hydrochloric acid
B. mercury
C. calcium chloride
D. tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid


14. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to the presence of
A. hydrogen chloride
B. water
C. air
D. oxygen


15. Adding conc. HNO₃ to an unknown solution gives a brown solution. The cation present is likely
A. Pb²⁺
B. Cu²⁺
C. Fe³⁺
D. Fe²⁺


16. The presence of carbon and sulphur in iron
A. gives high tensile strength
B. makes it malleable
C. increases melting point
D. lowers melting point


17. Impurities during laboratory preparation of chlorine gas are removed by
A. H₂O
B. NH₃
C. H₂SO₄
D. HCl


18. If M = mass deposited and Q = quantity of electricity, Faraday’s First Law is
A. M = E/Q
B. M = EQ
C. M = Q/E
D. M = E/2Q


19. MnO₄⁻ + Y + 5Fe²⁺ → Mn²⁺ + 5Fe³⁺ + 4H₂O
Y is
A. 5H⁺
B. 4H⁺
C. 10H⁺
D. 8H⁺


20. Corrosion occurs in the presence of
A. water and CO₂
B. water, CO₂ and oxygen
C. oxygen and CO₂
D. water and oxygen


21. In a galvanic cell, zinc electrode
A. undergoes reduction
B. is the positive electrode
C. produces electrons
D. uses electrons


22. CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl
The major factor affecting the reaction rate is
A. catalyst
B. temperature
C. concentration
D. light


23. Which substance is deliquescent?
A. NaNO₃
B. CaCl₂
C. CuO
D. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O


24. A reaction where hydration energy is greater than lattice energy is
A. spontaneous
B. endothermic
C. exothermic
D. reversible


25. Thermal pollution of water bodies causes
A. reduced water volume
B. increased waste
C. increased nitrogen oxides
D. reduced oxygen level


26. Which is NOT an alkali?
A. NH₃
B. Mg(OH)₂
C. Ca(OH)₂
D. NaOH


27. Number of cations from potassium aluminium tetraoxosulphate (VI) is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2


28. CH₃COOH + OH⁻ ⇌ CH₃COO⁻ + H₂O
CH₃COO⁻ is the
A. conjugate base
B. acid
C. base
D. conjugate acid


29. N₂O₄ ⇌ 2NO₂ ΔH = +ve
Increase in temperature will
A. increase equilibrium constant
B. decrease equilibrium constant
C. increase reactants
D. shift equilibrium left


30. The noble gas commonly found in air is
A. Xenon
B. Neon
C. Helium
D. Argon


31. A suitable solvent for iodine and naphthalene is
A. carbon (IV) sulphide
B. ethanol
C. water
D. benzene

32. Hardness of water is mainly due to
A. Ca(OH)₂ or Mg(OH)₂
B. CaCO₃ or CaSO₄
C. NaOH or Mg(OH)₂
D. CaCl₂ or NaCl


33. The bond between elements of atomic numbers 12 and 17 is
A. electrovalent
B. metallic
C. covalent
D. dative


34. Sodium aluminate (III) is used in water treatment to
A. cause coagulation
B. neutralize acidity
C. prevent goitre
D. kill germs


35. Crystal lattice arrangement is studied using
A. X-rays
B. γ-rays
C. α-rays
D. β-rays


36. Iodine molecules are held together by
A. dative bond
B. metallic bond
C. hydrogen bond
D. van der Waals forces


37. An isotope with atomic number 15 and mass number 31 has
A. 16 protons
B. 15 protons
C. 46 protons
D. 31 protons


38. Relative atomic mass of lithium (90% ⁷Li, 10% ⁶Li) is
A. 6.9
B. 7.1
C. 6.2
D. 6.8


39. Which statement about the periodic table is correct?
A. Non-metallic properties decrease across a period
B. Valence electrons increase across a period
C. Same group = same shells
D. Same period = same valence electrons


40. Which is NOT a property of matter?
A. Kinetic energy increases from solid to gas
B. Random motion increases from liquid to gas
C. Orderliness increases from gas to liquid
D. Random motion increases from gas to solid


41. Concentration of 2 g NaOH in 100 cm³ solution is
A. 0.40 mol dm⁻³
B. 0.50 mol dm⁻³
C. 0.05 mol dm⁻³
D. 0.30 mol dm⁻³


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*CHEMISTRY ANSWER*

1. A – move at different speeds in the column


2. A – Esterification


3. D – They have the same chemical properties


4. C – alkanal


5. D – 2


6. D – ethanol


7. D – C₂H₄O₂


8. A – C₂H₄


9. C – catenation


10. A – NaHCO₃


11. A – is stronger


12. D – dehydrating property


13. B – mercury


14. B – water


15. C – Fe³⁺


16. D – lower its melting point


17. A – H₂O


18. B – M = EQ


19. D – 8H⁺


20. D – water and oxygen


21. C – produces electrons


22. D – light


23. B – CaCl₂


24. C – exothermic reaction


25. D – reduced oxygen level


26. A – NH₃


27. D – 2


28. A – conjugate base


29. A – increase the equilibrium constant


30. D – Argon


31. A – carbon (IV) sulphide


32. B – CaCO₃ or CaSO₄


33. A – Electrovalent


34. A – cause coagulation


35. A – X-rays


36. D – van der Waals forces


37. B – 15 protons


38. A – 6.9


39. B – Valence electrons increase progressively across the period


40. D – Random motion of particles increases from gas to solid


41. B – 0.50 mol dm⁻³

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Review from last year waec subscribers!!!!

The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) has officially announced that 2,243,816 candidates registered for the 2026 Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME).

This record-breaking figure was disclosed in the Board's latest bulletin as the registration cycle concluded.
Key highlights from the 2026 registration report include:

Top Registered States: Lagos led with 321,814 candidates, followed by Kaduna (303,498) and FCT-Abuja (302,963).

Lowest Registration: Zamfara State recorded the fewest applicants, with 14,841 candidates.

Foreign Centres: International registrations were also recorded, with Cote D'Ivoire (32 candidates) and the United Kingdom (12 candidates) among the participating locations.

Examination Schedule: The 2026 UTME is scheduled to take place nationwide from April 16 to April 25, 2026.

Infrastructure Expansion: To manage the high volume, JAMB expanded its network to 1,000 accredited CBT centres, up from approximately 800 in the previous year.

*PHYSICS JAMB PAST QUESTIONS*📝📚🧠🔥🔥

1) The inner diameter of a test tube can be measured accurately using a?
A. micrometer screw guage
B. pair of dividers
C. metre rule
D. pair of vernier calipers

2) Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1. They experience forces which impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of forces the masses experienced.
A. 1 : 4
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 5

3) Particles of mass 10−2
kg is fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100rad-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the centripetal force is
A. 2 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 400 N

4) A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms−1
into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is
A. 50 J
B. 100 J
C. 150 J
D. 200 J

5) A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is
(take g = 10ms-2)
A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 15 J
D. 20 J

6) A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25m/s in 20 secs. The power developed in the engine is
A. 1 . 25 x 104 W
B. 2 . 50 x 104 W
C. 1 . 25 x 106W
D. 2 . 50 x 106 W

7) When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force force on the tyres is
A. is a disadvantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
B. is a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
C. is an advantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
D. is an advantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car

8) If the stress on a wire is 107NM-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. The young's modulus of the wire is
A. 5 . 0 x 104 Nm-2
B. 5 . 0 x 105 Nm-2
C. 2 . 0 x 108 Nm-2
D. 2 . 0 x 109 Nm-2

9) A solid weigh 10 .00 N in air, 6 N when fully immersed in water and 7 . 0 N when fully immersed in a liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid, X.
A. 5/3
B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 7/10

10) When temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain Constant
D. Increases then decreases

11) A gas at a volume of V0 in a container at pressure P0 is compressed to one-fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if the magnitude of its original temperature T is constant?
A. P0/5
B. 4P0/5
C. P0
D. 5P0

12) A piece of substance of specific head capacity 450JKg-1K-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10ms-2]
A. 2/9°C
B. 4/9°C
C. 9/4°C
D. 9/2°C

13) I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure
II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to increase in the boiling point.
III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases.
IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decrease the boiling point.

14) The temperature gradient across a copper rod of thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature junctions of 20°C and 80°C respectively is
A. 3.0 x 102Km-1
B. 3.0 x 103Km-1
C. 5.0 x 103Km-1
D. 3.0 x 104Km-1

15) Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss;
Specific heat capacity of copper = 400JKg-1K-1
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 105JKg-1
A. 8/33kg
B. 33/80kg
C. 80/33kg
D. 33/8kg

16) The equation of a wave traveling along the positive x-direction is given by;
y = 0.25 x 10−3
sin (500t - 0.025x).
Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion.
A. 0.25 x 10-3rad s-1
B. 0.25 x 10-1rad s-1
C. 5.00 x 102rad s-1
D. 2.50 x 103rad s-1

17) If a sound wave goes from a cold air region to a hot air region, its wavelength will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. decrease then increase
D. remain constant

18) The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40Hz. How many overtones are there between 40hz and 180Hz?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

19) A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is
A. 3m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 10m

20) The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will therefore form a
A. concave mirror of focal length 5cm
B. concave mirror of focal length 10cm
C. convex mirror of focal length 5cm
D. convex mirror of focal length 20cm

21) The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x 108ms-1 and 2.0 x 108ms-1 respectively. If the angle of refraction is 30°, the sine of the angle of incidence is
A. 0.33
B. 0.50
C. 0.67
D. 0.75

22) An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the
A. eye is accommodated
B. focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece
C. final image is at the near point of eye
D. final image is at infinity

23) Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic?
A. Infra-red rays
B. X-rays
C. Ultra-violet rays
D. Gamma rays

24) Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than iron because the former
A. is easily demagnetized by shaing vigorously
B. is an alloy of many metals
C. is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle
D. retains magnetism more than iron

25) Four cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and internal resistance of 4Ω are connected in parallel. What is the effective e.m.f. and internal resistance of the combination?
A. 6.0V, 16Ω
B. 6.0V, 1Ω
C. 1.5V, 4Ω
D. 1.5V, 1Ω

26) A 3000W electric cooker is to be used on a 200V mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be used safely with the cooker?
A. 2A
B. 5A
C. 10A
D. 20A

27) A galvanometer has a resistance of 5Ω. By using a shunt wire of resistance 0.05Ω, the galvanometer could be converted to an ammeter capable of reading 2Amp. What is the current through the galvanometer?
A. 2mA
B. 10mA
C. 20mA
D. 25mA

28) In fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the
A. motion, the field and the induced current
B. induced current, the motion and the field
C. field, the induced current and the motion
D. induced current, the field and the motion

29) At what frequency would a 10H inductor have a reactance of 2000Ω?
A. π/200Hz
B. π/100Hz
C. 100/πHz
D. 100πHz

30) The core of an efficient transformer should consist of laminated pieces of metal in order to
A. increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
B. increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
C. reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
D. reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current

31) Gamma rays are produced when
A. high velocity electrons are abruptly stopped in metals
B. energy changes occur within the nucleus of atoms
C. energy changes occur within the electronic structure of atoms
D. electrons are deflected in very strong magnetic fields

32) What is the speed of a particle of mass 10-27kg whose wavelength is 10-8m.
[h = 6.63 x 10-34Js]
A. 6.63ms-1
B. 66.30ms-1
C. 663.00ms-1
D. 6630.00ms-1

33) in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance, the voltages across the resistor and the inductor are 30V and 40V respectively, what is the voltage across the capacitor?
A. 30V
B. 40V
C. 50V
D. 70V

34) In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film with some of the particles being considerably deflected. This shows that
A. a gold nucleus contains protons, neutrons and electrons uniformly distributed in a tiny volume
B. the gold nucleus is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume
C. the gold nucleus emitted alpha particles
D. the gold nucleus is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles

35) 2311Na + Proton → pqX + alpha particle
What are the values of p and q respectively in the equation above?
A. 10 and 20
B. 12 and 24
C. 20 and 10
D. 24 and 12

36) A semiconductor diode is used in rectifying alternating current into direct current mainly because it
A. allows current to flow in either direction
B. is non-linear
C. offers a high input resistance
D. allows current to flow only in one direction

37) if ∆x is the uncertainty in the measurement of the position of a particle along the x-axis and ∆Px is the uncertainty in the measurement of the linear momentum along the x-axis, then the uncertainty principle relation is given as
A. ∆x ∆Px ≥ h
B. ∆x ∆Px = 0
C. ∆x ∆Px < h
D. ∆x ∆Px = ∞

38) When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, the fraction of its volume above the water surface will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. increase then decrease

39) I. Its velocity is constant
II. No work is done on the body
III. It has constant acceleration directed away from the centre
IV. The centripetal force is directed towards the centre

40) The velocity ratio of a machine is 5 and its efficiency is 75%. What effort would be needed to lift a load of 150N with the machine?
A. 20N
B. 30N
C. 40N
D. 50N

41) At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure downwards is P1 and pressure upwards is P2. It can be deduced that?
A. P1 > P2
B. P1 ≥ P2
C. P1 < P2
D. P1 = P2

42) If the force and the velocity on a system are each reduced simultaneously by half, the power of the system is
A. doubled
B. reduced to a quarter
C. reduced by half
D. constant

43) A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F. If the stone leaves with a velocity of 40m/s, the value of F is
A. 4.0 x 102N
B. 2.0 x 103N
C. 4.0 x 103N
D. 4.0 x 104N

44) A stream is flowing at 0.75ms−1
and a boat heading perpendicular for the stream landed at the opposite bank at an angle of 30°. Calculate the velocity of the boat.
A. 1.50ms-1
B. 1.00ms-1
C. 0.86ms-1
D. 0.65ms-1

45) A rope is being used to pull a mass of 10kg vertically upward. Determine the tension in the rope if, starting from rest, the mass acquires a velocity of 4ms−1 in 8s [g = 10ms−2]
A. 5N
B. 50N
C. 95N
D. 105N

46) I. The frictional force is independent of the area of the surfaces in conduct
II. The frictional force depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact
III. The frictional force depends on the speed of sliding
IV. The frictional force is directly proportional to the normal reaction.
Which combination of the above is true of sliding friction?
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

47) Total internal reflection occurs when light moves from?
A. a dense medium to a less dense medium
B. air to water
C. water to glass
D. a less dense to a dense medium

48) A quantity of water at 0°C is heated to about 30°C. At each degree rise in temperature, its density will
A. rise steadily
B. fall steadily
C. fall then rise
D. rise then fall

49) I. Coherence
II. Same frequency
III. Same wavelength
IV. Same Intensity
Which of the conditions above are necessary to produce interference fringes?
A. I and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II and III

50) A boy observes a piece of stone at the bottom of a river 6.0m deep. If he looks from the surface of the river, what is the apparent distance of the stone from him? [Refractive Index of Water = 4/3]
A. 8.0m
B. 5.5m
C. 5.0m
D. 4.5m