NOTICE 👇👇👇
As of mid-February 2026, approximately 1 million candidates have registered for the 2026 JAMB UTME. Registration for the 2026 examination began on January 26 and is scheduled to close on February 28, 2026, with no expected extensions. The board is targeting a total of over 2 million applicants for the 2026 cycle.
Key details regarding the 2026 registration:
Total Registered: ~1 million (as of Feb 11, 2026).
Target: 2 million+ candidates.
Deadline: Feb 28, 2026 (No extension).
Registration Window: Began Jan 26, 2026.
Prospective candidates are advised to complete their registration promptly to avoid last-minute rush and technical issues, as the board emphasizes strict adherence to the closing date.
JAMB says no extension of 2026 UTME registration, about 1 million candidates registered!!!.
As of mid-February 2026, approximately 1 million candidates have registered for the 2026 JAMB UTME. Registration for the 2026 examination began on January 26 and is scheduled to close on February 28, 2026, with no expected extensions. The board is targeting a total of over 2 million applicants for the 2026 cycle.
Key details regarding the 2026 registration:
Total Registered: ~1 million (as of Feb 11, 2026).
Target: 2 million+ candidates.
Deadline: Feb 28, 2026 (No extension).
Registration Window: Began Jan 26, 2026.
Prospective candidates are advised to complete their registration promptly to avoid last-minute rush and technical issues, as the board emphasizes strict adherence to the closing date.
JAMB says no extension of 2026 UTME registration, about 1 million candidates registered!!!.
❤2
*BIOLOGY JAMB PAST QUESTION 🙋🏻 📚📝💯🧠*
1) Which of the following is an example of a microorganism in action as a disease vector?
A. Fungi decomposing dead plant material
B. Mosquito transmitting malaria
C. Bacteria causing food poisoning
D. Algae producing oxygen through photosynthesis
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of cells related to irritability?
A. Ability to respond to stimuli
B. Ability to synthesize proteins
C. Ability to generate energy
D. Ability to replicate DNA
3) The membrane around the vacuole is known as
A. Elaioplast
B. Amyloplast
C. Tonoplast
D. Cytoplast
4) Which of the following is evidence of evolution?
A. All of the above.
B. Similarities in embryonic development
C. Fossils of extinct organisms
D. Homologous structures in different species
5) Which of the following is an example of an adaptation for survival in social insects?
A. Migration to warmer climates
B. Production of venom for defense
C. Formation of complex caste systems
D. Hibernation during winter months
6) Which of the following is NOT a part of the alimentary canal?
A. Oesophagus
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
7) Which of the following is an evolutionary trend commonly observed in organisms?
A. Decreased complexity over time
B. Increased dependence on external resources
C. Increased genetic diversity within populations
D. Decreased adaptation to the environment
8) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kingdom Plantae?
A. Presence of chloroplasts
B. Ability to perform photosynthesis
C. Lack of cell walls
D. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
9) A biome characterized by hot summer, warm winter and treeless vegetation is
A. Steppe grasslands
B. Temperate deserts
C. Savannah grassland
D. Tropical deserts
10) Which of the following is an example of physiological variation in organisms?
A. Variation in blood pressure among individuals
B. Variation in beak shape among finches
C. Differences in fur color in rabbits
D. Variation in leaf shape in plants
11) Which of the following are components of the skeletal system in humans?
A. Cartilage and blood vessels
B. Ligaments and tendons
C. Muscles and nerves
D. Bones and joints
12) Which of the following represents an example of ecological management and conservation through a biological association?
A. Construction of a dam for hydroelectric power
B. Introduction of an invasive species for pest control
C. Clear-cutting of a forest for timber extraction
D. Establishment of marine protected areas
13) The term cell was given by
A. Robert Hooke
B. Schwann
C. De Bary
D. Tatum
14) Which of the following is the primary organ involved in gas exchange during respiration in humans?
A. Diaphragm
B. Bronchi
C. Lungs
D. Trachea
15) Which gland is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pituitary gland
C. Pancreas
D. Adrenal gland
16) Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presences of:
I. swim bladder
II. air bladder
III. air sacs
IV. air in spongy bones
A. II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct
17) In monohybrid inheritance, if an organism carries two different alleles for a particular gene, it is called:
A. Homozygous
B. Dominant
C. Heterozygous
D. Recessive
18) What is the tissue responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant?
A. Xylem
B. Epidermis
C. Parenchyma
D. Phloem
19) Which of the following is an example of an abiotic ecological factor?
A. Temperature
B. Competition
C. Predation
D. Symbiosis
20) Which of the following processes is involved in the reproduction of developing organisms?
A. Budding
B. Germination
C. Fertilization
D. Pollination
21) Behavioral adaptation for dealing with a hot climate could include
A. Hibernating during the hottest part of the day
B. Large scales on the back of a lizard
C. Feeding during the hottest part of the day
D. A small kidney to conserve water
22) The natural place of an organism or community is known as
1) Which of the following is an example of a microorganism in action as a disease vector?
A. Fungi decomposing dead plant material
B. Mosquito transmitting malaria
C. Bacteria causing food poisoning
D. Algae producing oxygen through photosynthesis
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of cells related to irritability?
A. Ability to respond to stimuli
B. Ability to synthesize proteins
C. Ability to generate energy
D. Ability to replicate DNA
3) The membrane around the vacuole is known as
A. Elaioplast
B. Amyloplast
C. Tonoplast
D. Cytoplast
4) Which of the following is evidence of evolution?
A. All of the above.
B. Similarities in embryonic development
C. Fossils of extinct organisms
D. Homologous structures in different species
5) Which of the following is an example of an adaptation for survival in social insects?
A. Migration to warmer climates
B. Production of venom for defense
C. Formation of complex caste systems
D. Hibernation during winter months
6) Which of the following is NOT a part of the alimentary canal?
A. Oesophagus
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
7) Which of the following is an evolutionary trend commonly observed in organisms?
A. Decreased complexity over time
B. Increased dependence on external resources
C. Increased genetic diversity within populations
D. Decreased adaptation to the environment
8) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kingdom Plantae?
A. Presence of chloroplasts
B. Ability to perform photosynthesis
C. Lack of cell walls
D. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
9) A biome characterized by hot summer, warm winter and treeless vegetation is
A. Steppe grasslands
B. Temperate deserts
C. Savannah grassland
D. Tropical deserts
10) Which of the following is an example of physiological variation in organisms?
A. Variation in blood pressure among individuals
B. Variation in beak shape among finches
C. Differences in fur color in rabbits
D. Variation in leaf shape in plants
11) Which of the following are components of the skeletal system in humans?
A. Cartilage and blood vessels
B. Ligaments and tendons
C. Muscles and nerves
D. Bones and joints
12) Which of the following represents an example of ecological management and conservation through a biological association?
A. Construction of a dam for hydroelectric power
B. Introduction of an invasive species for pest control
C. Clear-cutting of a forest for timber extraction
D. Establishment of marine protected areas
13) The term cell was given by
A. Robert Hooke
B. Schwann
C. De Bary
D. Tatum
14) Which of the following is the primary organ involved in gas exchange during respiration in humans?
A. Diaphragm
B. Bronchi
C. Lungs
D. Trachea
15) Which gland is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pituitary gland
C. Pancreas
D. Adrenal gland
16) Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presences of:
I. swim bladder
II. air bladder
III. air sacs
IV. air in spongy bones
A. II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct
17) In monohybrid inheritance, if an organism carries two different alleles for a particular gene, it is called:
A. Homozygous
B. Dominant
C. Heterozygous
D. Recessive
18) What is the tissue responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant?
A. Xylem
B. Epidermis
C. Parenchyma
D. Phloem
19) Which of the following is an example of an abiotic ecological factor?
A. Temperature
B. Competition
C. Predation
D. Symbiosis
20) Which of the following processes is involved in the reproduction of developing organisms?
A. Budding
B. Germination
C. Fertilization
D. Pollination
21) Behavioral adaptation for dealing with a hot climate could include
A. Hibernating during the hottest part of the day
B. Large scales on the back of a lizard
C. Feeding during the hottest part of the day
D. A small kidney to conserve water
22) The natural place of an organism or community is known as
❤1
A. Niche
B. Habit
C. Biome
D. Habitat
23) Which process in the nutrient cycle converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can utilize?
A. Denitrification
B. Nitrogen fixation
C. Ammonification
D. Nitrification
24) Which of the following functions is performed by the skin to help maintain homeostasis in the human body?
A. Regulation of body temperature
B. Filtration of blood
C. Production of hormones
D. Digestion of food
25) Which of the following soil types becomes less fertile due to the intense leaching caused by tropical rains?
A. Yellow soil
B. Laterite soil
C. Red soils
D. Black soil
26) Which type of reproduction involves the fusion of gametes from two parents?
A. Sexual reproduction
B. Asexual reproduction
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
27) Which processes are involved in nutrient cycling in a functioning ecosystem?
A. Erosion, weathering, and sedimentation
B. Decomposition, evaporation, and precipitation
C. Nitrogen fixation, denitrification, and ammonification
D. Respiration, photosynthesis, and transpiration.
28) What is autotrophic nutrition?
A. Nutrition in which organisms obtain food by breaking down complex organic compounds.
B. Nutrition in which organisms obtain food from other organisms
C. Nutrition in which organisms obtain food by consuming both plants and animals
D. Nutrition in which organisms produce their own food using energy from the sun or inorganic substances
29) The theory of evolution can be defined as
A. The belief that all species were created in their current form
B. The hypothesis that organisms strive to improve themselves over generations
C. The idea that species change over time through natural processes
D. The concept that evolution occurs through a series of sudden and dramatic changes
30) Which of the following is a male reproductive organ in humans?
A. Uterus
B. Ovary
C. Testis
D. Fallopian tube
31) Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adaptation for survival in animals?
A. Sharp teeth
B. Migration
C. Wings
D. Camouflage
32) Which of the following traits is not visible in a person with Down syndrome?
A. Short neck
B. High muscle tone
C. Small stature
D. Slant eyes
33) What is the definition of population ecology?
A. The study of interactions between organisms and their physical environment
B. The study of evolutionary processes and their effects on populations
C. The study of interactions between different populations in an ecosystem
D. The study of the distribution and abundance of individuals within a species
34) What is the term used to describe the maximum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support indefinitely?
A. Ecological niche
B. Limiting factor
C. Carrying capacity
D. Density-dependent factor
35) Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
A. The heart is responsible for the production of red blood cells
B. The heart pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
C. The heart receives blood from the kidneys and filters waste products
D. The heart is a muscular organ that contracts to circulate blood throughout the body
36) What is the primary source of variation in a population?
A. Gene flow
B. Mutation
C. Natural selection
D. Genetic drift
37) Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues?
A. Platelets
B. White blood cells
C. Red blood cells
D. Plasma
38) What are the primary products of photosynthesis?
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Glucose and oxygen
C. Glucose and carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen and water
39) The alternate form of a gene is
A. Alternate type
B. Dominant character
C. Recessive character
D. Allele
40) Which organs are part of the alimentary canal in the human digestive system?
A. Salivary glands, tongue, and pharynx
B. Large intestine, appendix, and rectum
C. Stomach, liver, and gallbladder
D. Oesophagus, pancreas, and small intestine
41) Which of the following characteristics is typical of the phylum Arthropoda?
B. Habit
C. Biome
D. Habitat
23) Which process in the nutrient cycle converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can utilize?
A. Denitrification
B. Nitrogen fixation
C. Ammonification
D. Nitrification
24) Which of the following functions is performed by the skin to help maintain homeostasis in the human body?
A. Regulation of body temperature
B. Filtration of blood
C. Production of hormones
D. Digestion of food
25) Which of the following soil types becomes less fertile due to the intense leaching caused by tropical rains?
A. Yellow soil
B. Laterite soil
C. Red soils
D. Black soil
26) Which type of reproduction involves the fusion of gametes from two parents?
A. Sexual reproduction
B. Asexual reproduction
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
27) Which processes are involved in nutrient cycling in a functioning ecosystem?
A. Erosion, weathering, and sedimentation
B. Decomposition, evaporation, and precipitation
C. Nitrogen fixation, denitrification, and ammonification
D. Respiration, photosynthesis, and transpiration.
28) What is autotrophic nutrition?
A. Nutrition in which organisms obtain food by breaking down complex organic compounds.
B. Nutrition in which organisms obtain food from other organisms
C. Nutrition in which organisms obtain food by consuming both plants and animals
D. Nutrition in which organisms produce their own food using energy from the sun or inorganic substances
29) The theory of evolution can be defined as
A. The belief that all species were created in their current form
B. The hypothesis that organisms strive to improve themselves over generations
C. The idea that species change over time through natural processes
D. The concept that evolution occurs through a series of sudden and dramatic changes
30) Which of the following is a male reproductive organ in humans?
A. Uterus
B. Ovary
C. Testis
D. Fallopian tube
31) Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adaptation for survival in animals?
A. Sharp teeth
B. Migration
C. Wings
D. Camouflage
32) Which of the following traits is not visible in a person with Down syndrome?
A. Short neck
B. High muscle tone
C. Small stature
D. Slant eyes
33) What is the definition of population ecology?
A. The study of interactions between organisms and their physical environment
B. The study of evolutionary processes and their effects on populations
C. The study of interactions between different populations in an ecosystem
D. The study of the distribution and abundance of individuals within a species
34) What is the term used to describe the maximum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support indefinitely?
A. Ecological niche
B. Limiting factor
C. Carrying capacity
D. Density-dependent factor
35) Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
A. The heart is responsible for the production of red blood cells
B. The heart pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
C. The heart receives blood from the kidneys and filters waste products
D. The heart is a muscular organ that contracts to circulate blood throughout the body
36) What is the primary source of variation in a population?
A. Gene flow
B. Mutation
C. Natural selection
D. Genetic drift
37) Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues?
A. Platelets
B. White blood cells
C. Red blood cells
D. Plasma
38) What are the primary products of photosynthesis?
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Glucose and oxygen
C. Glucose and carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen and water
39) The alternate form of a gene is
A. Alternate type
B. Dominant character
C. Recessive character
D. Allele
40) Which organs are part of the alimentary canal in the human digestive system?
A. Salivary glands, tongue, and pharynx
B. Large intestine, appendix, and rectum
C. Stomach, liver, and gallbladder
D. Oesophagus, pancreas, and small intestine
41) Which of the following characteristics is typical of the phylum Arthropoda?
A. Radial symmetry
B. Closed circulatory system
C. Endoskeleton made of bones
D. Presence of a segmented body
42) Which of the following is an example of conserving resources in an ecosystem
A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture
B. Introducing invasive species to an ecosystem
C. Implementing sustainable fishing practices
D. Cutting down trees for timber production
43) Which of the following represents the correct hierarchical organization of life from the smallest to the largest scale?
A. Organs, tissues, cells, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
B. Cells, organs, tissues, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
C. Tissues, organs, cells, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
D. Cells, tissues, organs, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
44) Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?
A. Arteries
B. Venules
C. Capillaries
D. Veins
45) Which of the following describes the inheritance of traits from parents to offspring
A. Evolution
B. Adaptation
C. Genetics
D. Natural selection
46) Which of the following factors primarily affects the distribution of organisms in an ecosystem
A. Wind speed
B. Soil pH
C. Temperature
D. Day length
47) Which of the following is NOT a method of reproduction in animals?
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Budding
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Sporulation
48) Which of the following statements is true about the kingdom Fungi?
A. Fungi obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter
B. Fungi are photosynthetic organisms
C. Fungi are multicellular organisms
D. Fungi reproduce through the formation of seeds
49) Viviparity refers to the reproductive strategy in which
A. Offspring are produced by internal fertilization
B. Offspring are produced by external fertilization
C. Offspring develop and are nourished inside the female's body
D. Offspring develop and are nourished outside the female's body
50) Which of the following is the most inclusive level of classification in the Linnaean system?
A. Kingdom
B. Phylum
C. Domain
D. Class
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B. Closed circulatory system
C. Endoskeleton made of bones
D. Presence of a segmented body
42) Which of the following is an example of conserving resources in an ecosystem
A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture
B. Introducing invasive species to an ecosystem
C. Implementing sustainable fishing practices
D. Cutting down trees for timber production
43) Which of the following represents the correct hierarchical organization of life from the smallest to the largest scale?
A. Organs, tissues, cells, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
B. Cells, organs, tissues, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
C. Tissues, organs, cells, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
D. Cells, tissues, organs, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems
44) Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?
A. Arteries
B. Venules
C. Capillaries
D. Veins
45) Which of the following describes the inheritance of traits from parents to offspring
A. Evolution
B. Adaptation
C. Genetics
D. Natural selection
46) Which of the following factors primarily affects the distribution of organisms in an ecosystem
A. Wind speed
B. Soil pH
C. Temperature
D. Day length
47) Which of the following is NOT a method of reproduction in animals?
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Budding
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Sporulation
48) Which of the following statements is true about the kingdom Fungi?
A. Fungi obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter
B. Fungi are photosynthetic organisms
C. Fungi are multicellular organisms
D. Fungi reproduce through the formation of seeds
49) Viviparity refers to the reproductive strategy in which
A. Offspring are produced by internal fertilization
B. Offspring are produced by external fertilization
C. Offspring develop and are nourished inside the female's body
D. Offspring develop and are nourished outside the female's body
50) Which of the following is the most inclusive level of classification in the Linnaean system?
A. Kingdom
B. Phylum
C. Domain
D. Class
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*GOVERNMENT JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS*📚📝💯
1) A constitution is a legal document _____
A. drawn up by lawyers
B. enacted by military decrees
C. forming the basis upon which a government rules the country
D. only likely to succeed in countries where there is union government
2) A government in which control of ultimate power is by a few who rule in their selfish interest is classified as _____
A. an oligarchy
B. a dictatorship
C. an aristocracy
D. a monarchy
3) The judicial organ of government is the body which _____
A. implements the law
B. makes the law
C. punishes lawbreakers
D. interprets the law
4) Which of the following was not established by the 1979 Nigerian constitution ?
A. Police Service Commission
B. National Universities Commission
C. Federal Electoral Commission
D. National Population Commission
5) Rates are generally collected in Nigeria by ____
A. the State Ministry of Finance
B. the Department of inland Revenue
C. the Emirate of Traditional Council
D. the Local Government Council
6)In a democracy, sovereignty is in _____
A. the community
B. public officials
C. judges
D. the Head of State
7)Which of the following is a good example of a confederal state?
A. Nigeria
B. ECOWAS
C. Switzerland
D. USA
8)A bill that applies to the whole population and is intended to promote the general welfare is called _____
A. a private bill
B. a decree
C. an appropriate bill
D. a public bill
9)Fascism developed in____
A. France
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. China
10)The theory of separation of powers was first time clearly formulated by __
A. Jean Bodin
B. Jean Austin
C. Baron de Montesquieu
D. Lord Bryce
11)A system of government in which power derives from total control of the instruments of force is called ___
A. monarchy
B. oligarchy
C. capitalism
D. fascism
12)The British Government revoked the charter of the Royal Niger Company and took over the direct administration of Nigeria in _____
A. 1861
B. 1900
C. 1906
D. 1914
13)The Fundamental Objectives and Directive Principles of State Policy in the 1979 constitution do not include _____
A. democracy and social justice
B. federal character and inequality
C. concentration of wealth and provision of maximum welfare
D. national integration and ethnic loyalty
14)The founder of the Universal Negro Improvement Association was ____
A. Casey Hayford
B. Herbert Macaulay
C. Marcus Garvey
D. W. E. B, DuBois
15)A characteristic feature of communism is __
A. Free enterprise
B. liberal democracy
C. dictatorship
D. multi-party system
16)Africans were first elected to the legislative council in British West Africa in _____
A. Ghana
B. Sierra Leone
C. The Gambia
D. Nigeria
17)When a state is subject to no other authority, it is said to be _____
A. powerful
B. legitmate
C. authoritative
D. sovereign
18)While pressure groups aim at influencing government decisions, the primary aim of political parties is to __
A. promote the welfare of their members
B. execute particular programmes
C. influence legislation in order to benefit their members
D. control political power
19)In the tradition, Hausa-Fulani political system, political authority was vested in the ___
A. Emir
B. Talakawa
C. Alkali
D. Emirate Council
20)Southern Nigeria was divided into Eastern and Western provinces for administrative purposes in _____
A. 1935
B. 1937
C. 1939
D. 1941
21)Within the United Nations, the vote power is exercised in __
A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. the General Assembly
D. the Security Council
22)A set of internalized norms which guides political action is called ____
A. power
B. value
C. law
D. symbol
23)A condition for judicial independence is the appointment of judges by the __
A. Civil Service
B. Judicial Service Commission
C. Law Review Commission
D. Code of Conduct Bureau
24)Which of the following is not associated with local government elections?
A. Constituency
B. Ballot Box
C. Electoral Officer
D. Ward
1) A constitution is a legal document _____
A. drawn up by lawyers
B. enacted by military decrees
C. forming the basis upon which a government rules the country
D. only likely to succeed in countries where there is union government
2) A government in which control of ultimate power is by a few who rule in their selfish interest is classified as _____
A. an oligarchy
B. a dictatorship
C. an aristocracy
D. a monarchy
3) The judicial organ of government is the body which _____
A. implements the law
B. makes the law
C. punishes lawbreakers
D. interprets the law
4) Which of the following was not established by the 1979 Nigerian constitution ?
A. Police Service Commission
B. National Universities Commission
C. Federal Electoral Commission
D. National Population Commission
5) Rates are generally collected in Nigeria by ____
A. the State Ministry of Finance
B. the Department of inland Revenue
C. the Emirate of Traditional Council
D. the Local Government Council
6)In a democracy, sovereignty is in _____
A. the community
B. public officials
C. judges
D. the Head of State
7)Which of the following is a good example of a confederal state?
A. Nigeria
B. ECOWAS
C. Switzerland
D. USA
8)A bill that applies to the whole population and is intended to promote the general welfare is called _____
A. a private bill
B. a decree
C. an appropriate bill
D. a public bill
9)Fascism developed in____
A. France
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. China
10)The theory of separation of powers was first time clearly formulated by __
A. Jean Bodin
B. Jean Austin
C. Baron de Montesquieu
D. Lord Bryce
11)A system of government in which power derives from total control of the instruments of force is called ___
A. monarchy
B. oligarchy
C. capitalism
D. fascism
12)The British Government revoked the charter of the Royal Niger Company and took over the direct administration of Nigeria in _____
A. 1861
B. 1900
C. 1906
D. 1914
13)The Fundamental Objectives and Directive Principles of State Policy in the 1979 constitution do not include _____
A. democracy and social justice
B. federal character and inequality
C. concentration of wealth and provision of maximum welfare
D. national integration and ethnic loyalty
14)The founder of the Universal Negro Improvement Association was ____
A. Casey Hayford
B. Herbert Macaulay
C. Marcus Garvey
D. W. E. B, DuBois
15)A characteristic feature of communism is __
A. Free enterprise
B. liberal democracy
C. dictatorship
D. multi-party system
16)Africans were first elected to the legislative council in British West Africa in _____
A. Ghana
B. Sierra Leone
C. The Gambia
D. Nigeria
17)When a state is subject to no other authority, it is said to be _____
A. powerful
B. legitmate
C. authoritative
D. sovereign
18)While pressure groups aim at influencing government decisions, the primary aim of political parties is to __
A. promote the welfare of their members
B. execute particular programmes
C. influence legislation in order to benefit their members
D. control political power
19)In the tradition, Hausa-Fulani political system, political authority was vested in the ___
A. Emir
B. Talakawa
C. Alkali
D. Emirate Council
20)Southern Nigeria was divided into Eastern and Western provinces for administrative purposes in _____
A. 1935
B. 1937
C. 1939
D. 1941
21)Within the United Nations, the vote power is exercised in __
A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. the General Assembly
D. the Security Council
22)A set of internalized norms which guides political action is called ____
A. power
B. value
C. law
D. symbol
23)A condition for judicial independence is the appointment of judges by the __
A. Civil Service
B. Judicial Service Commission
C. Law Review Commission
D. Code of Conduct Bureau
24)Which of the following is not associated with local government elections?
A. Constituency
B. Ballot Box
C. Electoral Officer
D. Ward
❤2
25)Warrant Chiefs were appointed to __
A. Prevent tribal wars
B. supervise native courts
C. decide divorce cases
D. take charge of local administration
26)The application of the rule of law may be constrained by ____
A. securing the tenure of office of judges
B. insulating judges from partisan politics
C. employing men of proven integrity as judges
D. invoking emergency powers
27)The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the _____
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. Judicial Committees of the Privy Council
D. Court of Appeal
28)A feature unique to General Murtala Muhammed's Supreme Military Council as compared to that of General Yakubu Gowon was the _____
A. inclusion of the civilians as members
B. exclusion of military governors from the council
C. inclusion of the chief justice as a member
D. the exclusion of the Inspector General of police from the council
29)In the First Republic, Nigeria was very reluctant to have meaningful interaction with ____
A. Italy
B. the Soviet Union
C. the United States of America
D. Germany
30)The Gulf War of 1990 is an indication that the U. N. O. is unable to ___
A. ensure free world trade
B. stop colonialism
C. control armament
D. ensure permanent world peace
31)The simple plurality electoral system is often criticized because _____
A. the ruling party may lose the election
B. the winner may not poll an absolute majority
C. it works against all opposition parties
D. it is easy to rig
32)Which of the following was the last to win independence from colonial rule ?
A. Cote d'Ivoire
B. Algeria
C. Tanzania
D. Angola
33)Nigeria's non-aligned policy means that she will _____
A. have nothing to do with the superpowers
B. not take sides in international issues based on ideological considerations
C. avoid having any dealing with any country with ideological learnings
D. relate only with member countries of the Non-Aligned movement
34)The charter of the United Nations was drawn up in ____
A. New York
B. San Franciso
C. Washington DC
D. Los Angeles
35)The idea of making the civil service permanent, neutral and anonymous is to _____
A. make civil servants a functional elite
B. prevent opposition to government
C. ensure loyalty and support
D. enhance efficiency in administration
36)The delineation of constituencies is a major duty of the __
A. electoral commission
B. boundary commission
C. national assemblies
D. political parties
37)A meeting of the legislature is usually brought to an end with __
A. an adjournment
B. a prorogation
C. a dissolution
D. suspension
38) The economic basis of feudalism is __
A. agriculture
B. capital
C. trade
D. slavery
39) NEPAD was adopted during the OAU summit held in _____
A. Tunis
B. Lusaka
C. Cairo
D. Abuja
40) The Premier of Western Region immediately after independence was _____
A. Chief Obafemi Awolowo
B. Chief Ladoke Akintola
C. DR. M. A. Majekodunmi
D. Ahaji D. S adegbenro
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A. Prevent tribal wars
B. supervise native courts
C. decide divorce cases
D. take charge of local administration
26)The application of the rule of law may be constrained by ____
A. securing the tenure of office of judges
B. insulating judges from partisan politics
C. employing men of proven integrity as judges
D. invoking emergency powers
27)The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the _____
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. Judicial Committees of the Privy Council
D. Court of Appeal
28)A feature unique to General Murtala Muhammed's Supreme Military Council as compared to that of General Yakubu Gowon was the _____
A. inclusion of the civilians as members
B. exclusion of military governors from the council
C. inclusion of the chief justice as a member
D. the exclusion of the Inspector General of police from the council
29)In the First Republic, Nigeria was very reluctant to have meaningful interaction with ____
A. Italy
B. the Soviet Union
C. the United States of America
D. Germany
30)The Gulf War of 1990 is an indication that the U. N. O. is unable to ___
A. ensure free world trade
B. stop colonialism
C. control armament
D. ensure permanent world peace
31)The simple plurality electoral system is often criticized because _____
A. the ruling party may lose the election
B. the winner may not poll an absolute majority
C. it works against all opposition parties
D. it is easy to rig
32)Which of the following was the last to win independence from colonial rule ?
A. Cote d'Ivoire
B. Algeria
C. Tanzania
D. Angola
33)Nigeria's non-aligned policy means that she will _____
A. have nothing to do with the superpowers
B. not take sides in international issues based on ideological considerations
C. avoid having any dealing with any country with ideological learnings
D. relate only with member countries of the Non-Aligned movement
34)The charter of the United Nations was drawn up in ____
A. New York
B. San Franciso
C. Washington DC
D. Los Angeles
35)The idea of making the civil service permanent, neutral and anonymous is to _____
A. make civil servants a functional elite
B. prevent opposition to government
C. ensure loyalty and support
D. enhance efficiency in administration
36)The delineation of constituencies is a major duty of the __
A. electoral commission
B. boundary commission
C. national assemblies
D. political parties
37)A meeting of the legislature is usually brought to an end with __
A. an adjournment
B. a prorogation
C. a dissolution
D. suspension
38) The economic basis of feudalism is __
A. agriculture
B. capital
C. trade
D. slavery
39) NEPAD was adopted during the OAU summit held in _____
A. Tunis
B. Lusaka
C. Cairo
D. Abuja
40) The Premier of Western Region immediately after independence was _____
A. Chief Obafemi Awolowo
B. Chief Ladoke Akintola
C. DR. M. A. Majekodunmi
D. Ahaji D. S adegbenro
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*JAMB PHYSICS PAST QUESTIONS🧠🔥🔥*
1️⃣ Two cars moving in the same direction have speeds of 100 km/h and 130 km/h. The velocity of the faster car relative to the slower car is:
A. 30 km/h
B. 130 km/h
C. 200 km/h
D. 230 km/h
2️⃣ A stone and a feather are dropped from the same height (ignoring air resistance). Which is correct?
A. Feather blown away, stone drops steadily
B. Both reach the ground at the same time
C. Feather reaches first
D. Stone reaches first
3️⃣ A car moves from 25 m/s to 45 m/s in 10 s. Acceleration is:
A. 2 m/s²
B. 5 m/s²
C. 20 m/s²
D. 25 m/s²
4️⃣ Surfaces of conveyor belts are made rough to:
A. Protect them while carrying loads
B. Prevent the loads from slipping
C. Enable them to carry more load
D. Make them stronger
5️⃣ A machine with velocity ratio 6 requires effort 400 N to lift a load of 800 N through 1 m. Efficiency is:
A. 55.6%
B. 50%
C. 33.3%
D. 22.2%
6️⃣ Wire 30 cm long is extended to 30.5 cm by a force of 300 N. Strain energy is:
A. 0.75 J
B. 7.50 J
C. 75.0 J
D. 750.0 J
7️⃣ In a hydraulic press, pump piston exerts 100 Pa on liquid. Force on second piston of area 3 m² is:
A. 300 N
B. 200 N
C. 150 N
D. 100 N
8️⃣ Relative density of a powdered substance is measured with a beam balance and:
A. Density bottle
B. Eureka can
C. Pipette
D. Burette
9️⃣ A hydrometer measures:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Density of liquid
C. Relative humidity
D. Relative density
🔟 Alcohol is preferred over mercury in thermometers because of:
A. Low density
B. Low freezing point
C. High specific heat
D. Low boiling point
1️⃣1️⃣ Oil density changes from 0.8 to 0.4 kg/m³, volume 20 m³. Initial volume:
A. 12 m³
B. 10 m³
C. 8 m³
D. 5 m³
1️⃣2️⃣ Heat is radiated by hot objects in the form of:
A. X-rays
B. Light energy
C. Infrared rays
D. Solar energy
1️⃣3️⃣ Ice melts in a full container. Water level:
A. Rises
B. Overflows
C. Remains unchanged
D. Drops
1️⃣4️⃣ Small droplets on grass in the morning are:
A. Hail
B. Dew
C. Fog
D. Mist
1️⃣5️⃣ A vapour is saturated when:
A. Dynamic equilibrium exists between liquid and vapour
B. More molecules return than leave liquid
C. Temperature varies
D. Vapour pressure = atmospheric
1️⃣6️⃣ Pressure of 1 mole of ideal gas, V = 10⁻² m³, T = 27°C [R=8.3]:
A. 2.49 × 10⁴ N/m²
B. 2.24 × 10⁴ N/m²
C. 2.49 × 10⁵ N/m²
D. 2.24 × 10⁵ N/m²
1️⃣7️⃣ Which has no effect on radiation?
A. Nature of surface
B. Density
C. Surface area
D. Temperature
1️⃣8️⃣ Wave velocity = 420 m/s, wavelength = 42 m. Period = ?
A. 1.2 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 0.1 s
1️⃣9️⃣ Electricity bell sound dies down in a vacuum because:
A. Wavelength increases
B. Sound cannot pass
C. Sound needs material medium
D. Sound can pass through vacuum
2️⃣0️⃣ During thunderstorm, long-lasting sound is due to:
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Superposition
D. Reverberation
2️⃣1️⃣ In a camera vs human eye, the film functions as:
A. Retina
B. Iris
C. Cornea
D. Pupil
2️⃣2️⃣ Object 4 cm high is 15 cm from concave mirror, focal length 5 cm. Image size:
A. 2 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 5 cm
2️⃣3️⃣ Object in ice 10 cm deep, refractive index 1.50. Apparent depth:
A. 2.50 cm
B. 6.67 cm
C. 7.50 cm
D. 7.63 cm
2️⃣4️⃣ Short-sightedness is corrected with:
A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex mirror
D. Concave mirror
2️⃣5️⃣ Dispersion occurs when white light passes through a prism because:
A. Different hidden colours in glass
B. Different speeds of colours in glass
C. Defects in glass
D. High density of glass
2️⃣6️⃣ Positively charged rod near electroscope cap:
A. Leaves induced
B. Converge
C. Diverge
D. Constant
2️⃣7️⃣ Power supply transmitted at high voltage & low current to:
A. Pass through transformers
B. Increase supply
C. Travel fast
D. Prevent coil overheating
2️⃣8️⃣ Galvanometer 10 mA full-scale, series resistance 498 Ω to convert to 5 V voltmeter. Resistance of galvanometer:
A. 1 Ω
B. 2 Ω
C. 5 Ω
D. 10 Ω
2️⃣9️⃣ Two inductors 5 mH and 15 mH in series, current 5 A. Total energy stored:
A. 500 J
B. 250 J
C. 62.5 J
D. 50 J
E. No correct option
3️⃣0️⃣ AC circuit at resonance, angle of lead/lag:
A. π°
B. π/2°
C. π/3°
D. 0°
1️⃣ Two cars moving in the same direction have speeds of 100 km/h and 130 km/h. The velocity of the faster car relative to the slower car is:
A. 30 km/h
B. 130 km/h
C. 200 km/h
D. 230 km/h
2️⃣ A stone and a feather are dropped from the same height (ignoring air resistance). Which is correct?
A. Feather blown away, stone drops steadily
B. Both reach the ground at the same time
C. Feather reaches first
D. Stone reaches first
3️⃣ A car moves from 25 m/s to 45 m/s in 10 s. Acceleration is:
A. 2 m/s²
B. 5 m/s²
C. 20 m/s²
D. 25 m/s²
4️⃣ Surfaces of conveyor belts are made rough to:
A. Protect them while carrying loads
B. Prevent the loads from slipping
C. Enable them to carry more load
D. Make them stronger
5️⃣ A machine with velocity ratio 6 requires effort 400 N to lift a load of 800 N through 1 m. Efficiency is:
A. 55.6%
B. 50%
C. 33.3%
D. 22.2%
6️⃣ Wire 30 cm long is extended to 30.5 cm by a force of 300 N. Strain energy is:
A. 0.75 J
B. 7.50 J
C. 75.0 J
D. 750.0 J
7️⃣ In a hydraulic press, pump piston exerts 100 Pa on liquid. Force on second piston of area 3 m² is:
A. 300 N
B. 200 N
C. 150 N
D. 100 N
8️⃣ Relative density of a powdered substance is measured with a beam balance and:
A. Density bottle
B. Eureka can
C. Pipette
D. Burette
9️⃣ A hydrometer measures:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Density of liquid
C. Relative humidity
D. Relative density
🔟 Alcohol is preferred over mercury in thermometers because of:
A. Low density
B. Low freezing point
C. High specific heat
D. Low boiling point
1️⃣1️⃣ Oil density changes from 0.8 to 0.4 kg/m³, volume 20 m³. Initial volume:
A. 12 m³
B. 10 m³
C. 8 m³
D. 5 m³
1️⃣2️⃣ Heat is radiated by hot objects in the form of:
A. X-rays
B. Light energy
C. Infrared rays
D. Solar energy
1️⃣3️⃣ Ice melts in a full container. Water level:
A. Rises
B. Overflows
C. Remains unchanged
D. Drops
1️⃣4️⃣ Small droplets on grass in the morning are:
A. Hail
B. Dew
C. Fog
D. Mist
1️⃣5️⃣ A vapour is saturated when:
A. Dynamic equilibrium exists between liquid and vapour
B. More molecules return than leave liquid
C. Temperature varies
D. Vapour pressure = atmospheric
1️⃣6️⃣ Pressure of 1 mole of ideal gas, V = 10⁻² m³, T = 27°C [R=8.3]:
A. 2.49 × 10⁴ N/m²
B. 2.24 × 10⁴ N/m²
C. 2.49 × 10⁵ N/m²
D. 2.24 × 10⁵ N/m²
1️⃣7️⃣ Which has no effect on radiation?
A. Nature of surface
B. Density
C. Surface area
D. Temperature
1️⃣8️⃣ Wave velocity = 420 m/s, wavelength = 42 m. Period = ?
A. 1.2 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 0.1 s
1️⃣9️⃣ Electricity bell sound dies down in a vacuum because:
A. Wavelength increases
B. Sound cannot pass
C. Sound needs material medium
D. Sound can pass through vacuum
2️⃣0️⃣ During thunderstorm, long-lasting sound is due to:
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Superposition
D. Reverberation
2️⃣1️⃣ In a camera vs human eye, the film functions as:
A. Retina
B. Iris
C. Cornea
D. Pupil
2️⃣2️⃣ Object 4 cm high is 15 cm from concave mirror, focal length 5 cm. Image size:
A. 2 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 5 cm
2️⃣3️⃣ Object in ice 10 cm deep, refractive index 1.50. Apparent depth:
A. 2.50 cm
B. 6.67 cm
C. 7.50 cm
D. 7.63 cm
2️⃣4️⃣ Short-sightedness is corrected with:
A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex mirror
D. Concave mirror
2️⃣5️⃣ Dispersion occurs when white light passes through a prism because:
A. Different hidden colours in glass
B. Different speeds of colours in glass
C. Defects in glass
D. High density of glass
2️⃣6️⃣ Positively charged rod near electroscope cap:
A. Leaves induced
B. Converge
C. Diverge
D. Constant
2️⃣7️⃣ Power supply transmitted at high voltage & low current to:
A. Pass through transformers
B. Increase supply
C. Travel fast
D. Prevent coil overheating
2️⃣8️⃣ Galvanometer 10 mA full-scale, series resistance 498 Ω to convert to 5 V voltmeter. Resistance of galvanometer:
A. 1 Ω
B. 2 Ω
C. 5 Ω
D. 10 Ω
2️⃣9️⃣ Two inductors 5 mH and 15 mH in series, current 5 A. Total energy stored:
A. 500 J
B. 250 J
C. 62.5 J
D. 50 J
E. No correct option
3️⃣0️⃣ AC circuit at resonance, angle of lead/lag:
A. π°
B. π/2°
C. π/3°
D. 0°
❤3
3️⃣1️⃣ Discharge tube with most gas pumped out conducts electricity at:
A. Low voltage
B. Steady voltage
C. High pressure
D. Low pressure
3️⃣2️⃣ Hydrogen atom, ground state energy = 5.44 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. Electron drops from 0 to ground. Frequency emitted [h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ Js]:
A. 5.0 × 10¹⁶ Hz
B. 2.0 × 10¹⁶ Hz
C. 5.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz
D. 2.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz
E. No correct option
3️⃣3️⃣ Transistors are used for:
A. Rectification
B. AC → DC conversion
C. Signal amplification
D. DC → AC conversion
3️⃣4️⃣ Pure semiconductor:
A. Carbon
B. Silicon
C. Transistor
D. Phosphorus
3️⃣5️⃣ Bob weight 0.1 N, string length 50 cm. Pulled to 60° with horizontal force. Work done:
A. 0.500 J
B. 0.250 J
C. 0.050 J
D. 0.025 J
3️⃣6️⃣ Metals P & Q, lengths l₁ & l₂, linear expansion ratio 2:3, length ratio 3:4. Increase in length ratio P:Q:
A. 7:5
B. 5:7
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
3️⃣7️⃣ Velocity of sound in air at 16°C = 340 m/s. Pressure doubled, temperature 127°C. New velocity:
A. 400 m/s
B. 4,000 m/s
C. 8,000 m/s
D. 160,000 m/s
3️⃣8️⃣ Three capacitors 2 μF, 4 μF, 8 μF in parallel, 6 V across each. Total energy:
A. 2.52 × 10⁻⁶ J
B. 6.90 × 10⁻⁶ J
C. 2.52 × 10⁻⁴ J
D. 6.90 × 10⁻⁴ J
3️⃣9️⃣ Cell emf 12 V, internal resistance 4 Ω, external resistor 2 Ω. Current flow:
A. 5 A
B. 4 A
C. 3 A
D. 2 A
4️⃣0️⃣ Three 4 Ω resistors in parallel, 16 V across them. Total current:
A. 14 A
B. 12 A
C. 10 A
D. 8 A
4️⃣1️⃣ Faraday’s law of electrolysis: slope of mass vs charge graph gives:
A. Energy released
B. Electrochemical equivalent
C. Current flowing
D. Charge released
4️⃣2️⃣ Solid → liquid when heat applied is called:
A. Evaporation
B. Vaporization
C. Fission
D. Fusion
4️⃣3️⃣ Object weighed at different Earth locations. Observation:
A. Mass & weight vary
B. Weight constant, mass varies
C. Mass constant, weight varies
D. Both constant
4️⃣4️⃣ ²³⁵₉₂U decays by 2 α, 3 β & γ. Mass & atomic number of resulting element:
A. 215 & 88
B. 91 & 227
C. 227 & 91
D. 92 & 238
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A. Low voltage
B. Steady voltage
C. High pressure
D. Low pressure
3️⃣2️⃣ Hydrogen atom, ground state energy = 5.44 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. Electron drops from 0 to ground. Frequency emitted [h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ Js]:
A. 5.0 × 10¹⁶ Hz
B. 2.0 × 10¹⁶ Hz
C. 5.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz
D. 2.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz
E. No correct option
3️⃣3️⃣ Transistors are used for:
A. Rectification
B. AC → DC conversion
C. Signal amplification
D. DC → AC conversion
3️⃣4️⃣ Pure semiconductor:
A. Carbon
B. Silicon
C. Transistor
D. Phosphorus
3️⃣5️⃣ Bob weight 0.1 N, string length 50 cm. Pulled to 60° with horizontal force. Work done:
A. 0.500 J
B. 0.250 J
C. 0.050 J
D. 0.025 J
3️⃣6️⃣ Metals P & Q, lengths l₁ & l₂, linear expansion ratio 2:3, length ratio 3:4. Increase in length ratio P:Q:
A. 7:5
B. 5:7
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
3️⃣7️⃣ Velocity of sound in air at 16°C = 340 m/s. Pressure doubled, temperature 127°C. New velocity:
A. 400 m/s
B. 4,000 m/s
C. 8,000 m/s
D. 160,000 m/s
3️⃣8️⃣ Three capacitors 2 μF, 4 μF, 8 μF in parallel, 6 V across each. Total energy:
A. 2.52 × 10⁻⁶ J
B. 6.90 × 10⁻⁶ J
C. 2.52 × 10⁻⁴ J
D. 6.90 × 10⁻⁴ J
3️⃣9️⃣ Cell emf 12 V, internal resistance 4 Ω, external resistor 2 Ω. Current flow:
A. 5 A
B. 4 A
C. 3 A
D. 2 A
4️⃣0️⃣ Three 4 Ω resistors in parallel, 16 V across them. Total current:
A. 14 A
B. 12 A
C. 10 A
D. 8 A
4️⃣1️⃣ Faraday’s law of electrolysis: slope of mass vs charge graph gives:
A. Energy released
B. Electrochemical equivalent
C. Current flowing
D. Charge released
4️⃣2️⃣ Solid → liquid when heat applied is called:
A. Evaporation
B. Vaporization
C. Fission
D. Fusion
4️⃣3️⃣ Object weighed at different Earth locations. Observation:
A. Mass & weight vary
B. Weight constant, mass varies
C. Mass constant, weight varies
D. Both constant
4️⃣4️⃣ ²³⁵₉₂U decays by 2 α, 3 β & γ. Mass & atomic number of resulting element:
A. 215 & 88
B. 91 & 227
C. 227 & 91
D. 92 & 238
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